Answer:
think.....all you have to do is think XD
but in all honesty the answer is a determine your descision
Answer:
59% - a)increase - b)decrease
Explanation:
First of all, we should say that the real exchange rate is calculated by multiplying the nominal exchange rate for the price index and then divide it by the price index of the other country. In another language, using this case as the example, the first nominal exchange rate is 50, as you need 50 rupees to buy 1 dollar. So to calculate the real exchange rate you need to multiply 50 by 100 (the price index of USA) and then divide it by 100 (the price index of India). Note that both price indexes are 100, just a coincidence for making easier the question. Result: 50.
Then we calculate the next real exchange rate: multiply 60 (the new nominal exchange rate) by 106 (the new US price index) and divide by 80 (the new India price index). This throws a result of 79,5. We see a 29,5 increase, and 29,5 represents 59% of 50 (the initial real exchange rate).
Then both questions is more common sense than the reading of the results we just calculated. For example, nominal exchange rate changed from 50 to 60, so the people in India will now have to collect 10 more rupees to buy the same dollar. Let's suppose a pair of shoes in USA costs 40 dollars. Before, Indians needed 2000 rupees to buy it. Now they will need 2400 rupees... it will be more expensive. Plus, the prices of USA had gone up 6%, which means the pair of shoes will now cost 42,4 dollars... even more expensive! As products in USA are more expensive, we can expect that India's consumption of American goods will decrease (law of demand).
With the American consumption of Indian goods happens the opposite, the goods in India became cheaper (price index has fallen), and for the Americans, the same dollars they had will buy more rupees when the exchange rate changed to 60.
Answer:
d. It would increase liabilities by $600
Explanation:
Supplies are part of inventory, and when inventory is purchased it increases assets.
But is it purchased against cash then there is no change as assets in the form of cash is reduced by same.
Further, if these are purchased on credit then the balance of liabilities increases as the increase in liabilities and increase in assets keep the balance sheet equation matching.
Thus, purchasing on credit will increase the liabilities.
Answer:
The aftertax salvage value of the machine is D) $10,134
Explanation:
Hi. first, we need to find out the book value of the machine at the selling date, that is 3 years from now, and the book value is as follows.
Since taxes are based on the profit you make by selling something, our profit is:
Therefore, our taxes are:
So, the after tax salvage value of the machine is the money you received on the sale minus the taxes you have to pay, that is:
Salvage Value of the Machine = $12,000 - $1,866?= $10,134
That is option D)
Best of luck.
Answer:
compliance risk
Explanation:
Compliance risk -
It refers to the risky situation , which can be due to some financial forfeiture , legal penalties , loss of material , when the company fails to follow the rules and regulations , is referred to as compliance risk .
Hence , from the given scenario of the question,
The correct type of risk involved is compliance risk .
