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DochEvi [55]
3 years ago
8

With no inflation, a bank would be willing to lend a business firm $5 million at an annual interest rate of 6%. But if the rate

of inflation was expected to be 4%, the bank would most likely charge the firm an annual interest rate of rev:________________
Business
1 answer:
MAXImum [283]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The nominal interest rate which the bank will offer is of 10.24%

Explanation:

according to Irwin formula the bank will charge a nominal rate that ensures a real rate of 6% thus:

\frac{1+r_n}{1+ \theta} -1 =r_e

(1+r_e)(1+ \theta) -1 = r_n

1.06*1.04-1 = 0.1024 = 10.24%

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Go to the internet and find a news article published within the last month that discusses changes in demand and supply of partic
Setler79 [48]

Answer: The explanation is provided below

Explanation:

Below article is the summary of the acceleration of inflation in the emerging markets that was published in 2018.

According to the article, inflation in an economy is caused by an adverse supply shock or as a result of the expansionary fiscal policy or the expansionary monetary policy.

In an adverse supply shock, total quantity of basic goods will reduce drastically causing the aggregate demand to rise exponentially and therefore, push prices higher and then gradually lead to inflation.

Also, the continous and eventual implementation of the expansionary fiscal or monetary policy through continous tax cuts or by increasing government spending or reducting interest rates, lead into significant increase in the aggregate demand and as a result, prices rise eventually resulting in hyperinflation in the economy. This will also lead to increase in the real GDP of the economy.

Different tools in the monetary policy framework can be used to control inflation such as government securities,

the cash reserve ratio, interest rates. To reduce recession, government utilize automatic stabilizer in order to boost the economy.

8 0
3 years ago
Walman Corp. manufactures products X, Y, and Z from a joint production process. Joint costs are allocated to products on the bas
rewona [7]

Answer:

We will only produce further product Y and Z

Explanation:

We should check the increase in sales revenue with the increase in cost to know if further process acheive a gain:

<u>Product X</u>

Increase in sales value:

348,000 - 340,000 =  8,000

Additional Cost:     <u>   (38,000)  </u>

difference:                 (30,000) Non-profitable

<u>Product Y</u>

Increase in sales revenue:

185,000 - 150,000 =  35,000

additional cost:      <u>   (30,000)  </u>

difference:                   5,000 Profitable

<u>Product Z</u>

Increase in sales revenue:

147,000 - 110,000 =   37,000

additional cost:    <u>    (22,000)   </u>

difference:                 15,000 Profitable

3 0
3 years ago
The seller of product a has no idle capacity and can sell all it can produce at $60 per unit. outlay (variable) cost is $12. wha
Marrrta [24]

The answer is $48.

The seller of product a has no idle capacity and can sell all it can produce at $60 per unit. outlay (variable) cost is $12. $48 is the opportunity cost, assuming the seller sells internally

It is calculated as follows:

Opportunity cost= Production cost- Outlay cost

                             = 60-12

                               =$48

Opportunity costs represent the potential benefits which any individual or investor, or  any business misses out on when choosing one alternative over another.

Because the opportunity costs are generally unseen by definition, they can be easily overlooked. Understanding of the potential missed opportunities when any business or any individual chooses one investment over another investment allows for better decision making.

To know more about opportunity cost here:

brainly.com/question/13036997

#SPJ4

5 0
2 years ago
ABC Company insured its building on a replacement cost basis for $700,000 under a property insurance policy that included an 80%
Rama09 [41]

Answer:

$35,000

Explanation:

Given that

Insurance = $700,000

Sustained cost = $40,000

Replacement cost = $1,000,000

Policy = 80%

The computation of amount eligible for payment is as shown below:-

Insurance required = Cost of building × Co insurance

=$1,000,000 × 0.80

= $800,000

The amount eligible for payment = (Insurance Carried ÷ Insurance Required) × Loss

= $700,000 ÷ ($1,000,000 × 80%) × ($40,000)

= $700,000 ÷ $800,000 × $40,000

= 0.875 × $35,000

= $35,000

3 0
3 years ago
Dream Homes is an appliance store. It recently launched its own brand of freezers in order to build customer loyalty. The store
Alex787 [66]

The Pricing strategy which Dream Homes implemented is known as Price lining (Option A) which categorized the prices accordingly with the financial soundness of the customers.

Explanation:

The demand for more goods always plays a vital role in ensuring good sales. The likes of the customers towards particular products depend upon the nature of unique features and its fine quality. By capturing the pulse of the purchasing power of the customers, the business ventures fixed the prices according to the level of economical weaker sections, middle, and high-income groups.

In this case, Dream Homes fix the price of freezers by measuring the ability of customers' to buy them without compromising with the customers requirements. Dream Homes uses the price lining method to gain customers' reputation by selling the products accordingly with their status of income level.      

8 0
3 years ago
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