Answer:
Hope I helped! Brainleist!
Step-by-step explanation:
you get $12/week
and you have $
your equation is
y=12x
now...
y = 384
so
384=12x
x= 32
The first one and the third one are correct. because for the when you plug 1 on the first piece wise function you get 3.
f(3) =1. and f(1)=3 so f(1)>f(3)
Answer:a) P(8 of the players numbers are drawn)=1.3×10^-8
b) P(7 of the players number are drrawn)=3.33×10^-c) P(at least 6 of the players number were drawn)=1.84×10^-4
Step-by-step explanation:
Players has 8 combinations of numbers from 1-40. The outcome S contains all the combinations of 8 out of 40
a) P(8 of the players numbers are drawn)= 1/40/8= 1.3×10^-8
There are one in hundred million chances that the draw numbers are precisely the chosen ones.
b) Number of ways of drawing 78 selected numbers from 1-40=8×(40-7)
8×32
P(7 of the players number are drawn)=8×32/40 =3.33×10^-6.
There are approximately 300,000 chances that 7 of the players numbers are chosen
c) P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn)= 32/2×(8/6) ways to draw.
P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn)=P(all 8 chosen are drawn)+P(7 players numbers drawn)+P(6 chosen are drawn) = 1+ 8 x32/40/8 +[8\6 ×32/2]
P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn) = 1.84×10^-4.
There are approximately 5400chances that at least6 of the numbers drawn are chosen by the player.
Answer:
D
Step-by-step explanation:
11/3 x 6/7 x 131/13 =
8646/273 =
31.7