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Brums [2.3K]
3 years ago
5

Please help!! I need it

Mathematics
1 answer:
anygoal [31]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

4th

Step-by-step explanation:

make me as branalist

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Each day, Robin commutes to work by bike with probability 0.4 and by walking with probability 0.6. When biking to work injuries
kvasek [131]

Answer:

64.65% probability of at least one injury commuting to work in the next 20 years

Step-by-step explanation:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}


In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

\mu is the mean in the given interval.

Each day:

Bikes to work with probability 0.4.

If he bikes to work, 0.1 injuries per year.

Walks to work with probability 0.6.

If he walks to work, 0.02 injuries per year.

20 years.

So

\mu = 20*(0.4*0.1 + 0.6*0.02) = 1.04

Either he suffers no injuries, or he suffer at least one injury. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

P(X = 0) + P(X \geq 1) = 1

We want P(X \geq 1). Then

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)

In which

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}


P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-1.04}*1.04^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.3535


P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.3535 = 0.6465

64.65% probability of at least one injury commuting to work in the next 20 years

3 0
2 years ago
Show or explain how to write 8,523 in expanded form using 15 hundreds
leonid [27]
8000+500+20+3
numer of 0's at the end is in accordance to the number of numbers behind the number you are writing 
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
4 cos²x – 1=0<br><br> What is the solution?
andreev551 [17]

Answer:

$x=\frac{\pi }{3}+2\pi n, n\in \mathbb{Z}$

$\:x=\frac{5\pi }{3}+2\pi n, n \in \mathbb{Z}$

$x=\frac{2\pi }{3}+2\pi n, n\in \mathbb{Z}$

$\:x=\frac{4\pi }{3}+2\pi n, n \in \mathbb{Z}$

or

$x=\frac{\pi}{3}+\pi n, n \in \mathbb{Z} $

$x=\frac{2\pi }{3}+\pi n, n\in \mathbb{Z}$

Step-by-step explanation:

4\text{cos}^2(x)-1=0\\4\text{cos}^2(x)=1\\

$cos(x)=\pm\sqrt{\frac{1}{4} } $

$cos(x)=\pm\frac{1}{2}  $

So, when cos(x) is equal to

$\frac{1}{2}   \text{ and } -\frac{1}{2}$    ?

For

$cos(x)=\frac{1}{2} $

We are talking about x = 60º and x = 300º, Quadrant I and IV, respectively. In radians:

$x=\frac{\pi }{3}+2\pi n, n\in \mathbb{Z}$

$\:x=\frac{5\pi }{3}+2\pi n, n \in \mathbb{Z}$

or

$x=\frac{\pi}{3}+\pi n, n \in \mathbb{Z} $

For

$cos(x)=-\frac{1}{2} $

We are talking about x = 120º and x = 240º, Quadrant II and III, respectively. In radians:

$x=\frac{2\pi }{3}+2\pi n, n\in \mathbb{Z}$

$\:x=\frac{4\pi }{3}+2\pi n, n \in \mathbb{Z}$

or

$x=\frac{2\pi }{3}+\pi n, n\in \mathbb{Z}$

6 0
3 years ago
Please help i dont understand
Rama09 [41]

Answer:

17.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Pythagorean Theorem is a^2 + b^2 =c^2

a= 9 , b= 15, c= x

9^2 + 15^2 = c^2

\sqrt{306}= c^2

c= 17.493 or 17.5 rounded to the nearest tenth

4 0
2 years ago
The reciprocal of half a number increased by half the reciprocal of the number is 1/2. Find the number
klemol [59]

Answer:

5

Explanation:

Let the number equal x. Half the number is then

x

2

and the reciprocal of that is

2

x

The reciprocal of the number is

1

x

and half that is

1

2

x

then

2

x

+

1

2

x

=

1

2

4

x

+

x

2

x

2

=

1

2

10

x

=

2

x

2

2

x

2

−

10

x

=

0

2

x

(

x

−

5

)

=

0

Zero is not viable solution as its reciprocal is infinity. The answer is therefore

x

=

5

7 0
3 years ago
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