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Svetllana [295]
3 years ago
6

Which of the following costs is often important in decision making, but is omitted from conventional accounting records? A. Fixe

d cost.B. Opportunity cost.C. Sunk cost.D. Indirect cost.
Business
1 answer:
-Dominant- [34]3 years ago
8 0

The correct option is B - Opportunity Cost

<u>Explanation:</u>

Generally, an opportunity cost is the benefit that you gave up when you pass on that option in favor of another option. For instance, by choosing to purchase furniture instead of taking a vacation comes at the cost of not experiencing the relaxation and fun associated with a vacation. All options have opportunity costs (getting married instead of staying single, investing in school instead of retirement, etc).

Everyone should know that opportunity cost is a very important concept that doesn’t just have its application in economics; you can apply it to all aspects of your daily life. Whether you’re cooking, eating, playing soccer, going to the movies, or hitting the gym, so long as you’re breathing, evaluating the choices you’re presented with is an inevitability, whether conscious of it or not.

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Flounder Corporation is preparing a bank reconciliation and has identified the following potential reconciling items.
nikklg [1K]

Answer:

Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below:

a. No entry passed

b. Office expense A/c Dr $38

          To Cash                             $38

(Being bank service charges paid)

c. Cash A/c Dr $32

           To Interest revenue  $32

(Being interest received)

d. No entry passed

e. Accounts receivable A/c Dr $570

         To Cash A/c                                   $570    

(Being check returned)

The deposit in transit and outstanding checks should not be recorded. So, no entry is passed.

5 0
3 years ago
Howard Ramsell recently became aware of implied warranties that exist for consumer purchases. An implied warranty exists as a re
faltersainse [42]

Answer:

(C) the intended use of a product.

Explanation:

Implied as the term means that it is obvious, further guarantee means that the guarantee is obvious.

Now, this is because of the use of the product, as for example there is an equipment called heater, which is generally sold in winters, as it warms the room.

Now it is implied that the heater shall at-least be in proper condition and shall work without any failure for one season of winters.

The correct answer is,

Statement C

3 0
3 years ago
Mahogany inc. is a consulting firm. it reports its results on a cash-basis with a fiscal year ending june 30th. mahogany perform
Dimas [21]
<span>If these are the missing choices:
</span>A  :  the Securities and Exchange Commission, income principle  
<span>B  : GAAP, revenue recognition principle 
C  : GAAP, expense recognition principle 
D  : the IRS, tax principle </span><span>

My answer is: </span><span>B  : GAAP, revenue recognition principle  
</span><span>
The cash-basis is not in accordance with GAAP, and mahogany is in violation of the REVENUE RECOGNITION PRINCIPLE.

GAAP refers to Generally Accepted Accounting Principle. 

It is stated that income must be recognized when it is earned not when cash is received. Because the company is using cash-basis, they will only report income earned on July 12 when they received the money not when they earned it which is before their fiscal year ending June 30. 
They should recognized receivables from customers before closing the books for the fiscal year. </span>
6 0
3 years ago
An existing electrical power line needs to have its capacity increased, and this can be done in either of two ways. The first me
nekit [7.7K]

Answer:

3 years

Explanation:

<u>First method</u>

The PV of the investment can be written as:

PV1 = $15,000 + $32,500/(1+0.06)^n

<u>Second method</u>

The PV of the investment can be written as:

PV2 = $23,000 + $23,000/(1+0.06)^n

After n years both projects will be economically equal. Hence their present value must be equal PV1 = PV2

$15,000 + $32,500/(1.06)^n = $23,000 + $23,000/(1.06)^n

$23,000 - $15,000 = $32,500/(1.06)^n - $23,000/(1.06)^n

$8,000 = $9,500/(1.06)^n

(1.06)^n = $9,500/$8,000

(1.06)^n = 1.1875

Taking log on both sides we get:

nlog1.06 = log 1.1875

n = log 1.1875/log 1.06

n = 0.07463361829/0.02530586526

n = 2.94926166417121

n = 3

So, the answer is 3 years

3 0
3 years ago
Which $1,000 bond has the higher yield to maturity, a twenty-years bond selling for $800 with a current yield of 15% or a one-ye
lesantik [10]

Answer:

30%

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

Here we considered a long term bond that time period should be 15 years or more

Now as we know that

Current yield is

= Current payment ÷ Pb

5% = Current payment ÷ $800

The Current payment is $40

Now the yield to maturity is

-$800 = $50 ÷  (1 + i) + $1,000 ÷ (1 + i) + $1,040 ÷ (1 + i)

So, i = 30%

The same is to be chosen

3 0
3 years ago
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