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4 years ago

Some one can answer pls?

Business

1 answer:

olga_2 [115]4 years ago

8 0

The prospect of greater market share and setting themselves apart from the competition is an incentive for firms to innovate and make better products. But no firm possesses a dominant market share in perfect competition. Profit margins are also fixed by demand and supply.

A perfectly competitive firm is a price taker, which means that it must accept the equilibrium price at which it sells goods. If a perfectly competitive firm attempts to charge even a tiny amount more than the market price, it will be unable to make any sales.
Perfect competition occurs when there are many sellers, there is easy entry and exiting of firms, products are identical from one seller to another, and sellers are price takers.
The market structure is the conditions in an industry, such as number of sellers, how easy or difficult it is for a new firm to enter, and the type of products that are sold.

Hope this helps:)

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harina [27]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

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3 years ago

If Morton Company expects to sell VCR’s at $100 a unit with variable costs of $60 per unit and DVD’s at $200 per unit with varia

Thepotemich [5.8K]

Answer:

$72

Explanation:

To calculate the weighted contribution margin we can use the following formula:

[(sales price A - variable cost A) x proportional sales A] + [(sales price B - variable cost B) x proportional sales B]

= [($200 - $120) x 80%] + [($100 - $60) x 20%] = $64 + $8 = $72

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3 years ago

On November 1, 2021, Aviation Training Corp. borrows $46,000 cash from Community Savings and Loan. Aviation Training signs a thr

emmainna [20.7K]

Answer:

Record the issuance of note.

November 1, 2021

Dr. Cash 46000

Cr. Note Payable 46000

Record the adjustment for interest.

December 31, 2021

Dr. Interest Expense 460

Cr. Interest Payable 460

(46000*6%)*3/12 = 460

Record the repayment of the note at maturity

Dr. Note Payable 46000

Dr. Interest Payable 460

Dr. Interest Expense 230

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(46000*6%)*1/12 = 230

Explanation:

* At the year end the interest expense is accrued and recorded as interest payable.

4 0

3 years ago

You’ve collected the following information from your favorite financial website.

Nataliya [291]

Answer:

-9.92%

Explanation:

P₀ = Div₁ / (Re - g)

Div₁ = next year's expected dividend = $1.12 x (1 - 11.5%) = $0.9912
Re = cost of equity = ?
P₀ = current stock price = $62.91
g = dividend's growth rate = -11.5%

Re = (Div₁ / P₀) + g

Re = ($0.9912 / $62.91) - 11.5%

Re = 1.58% - 11.5% = -9.92%

Since the cost of equity or required rate of return cannot be negative, I suppose that investors are not worried about Abbott distributing dividends, instead, they prefer that the company reinvests earnings in new projects.

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3 years ago

Xie Company identified the following activities, costs, and activity drivers for this year. The company manufactures two types o

san4es73 [151]

Answer:

Results are below.

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Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $17.44 per direct labor hour

Now, we can allocate overhead to each product line:

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Deluxe:

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Allocated MOH= $43,600

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Allocated MOH= $104,640

6 0

3 years ago