By applying the formulas of present and future values of annuity we can solve this problem. In this mortgage problem, first we have to find loan amount after the down payment. It is 699,000 - 699,000 * 0.2 = 559,200$. We have to set it as PV (Present Value) of annuity. Using the PV formula ![PV = A \frac{[1- \frac{1}{(1+r)^{N}}]}{r}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20PV%20%3D%20A%20%5Cfrac%7B%5B1-%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B%281%2Br%29%5E%7BN%7D%7D%5D%7D%7Br%7D%20)
, we first find A, which is an annual payment. Exact calculation with mortgage calculator gives us A = 33,866.56$. After finding it, plugging this number into FV (Future Value) formula ![FV = A\frac{[(1+r)^{N}-1]}{r}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20FV%20%3D%20A%5Cfrac%7B%5B%281%2Br%29%5E%7BN%7D-1%5D%7D%7Br%7D%20%20%20)
, we find the value of the future value and it is 1,185,329.66$. And the total financial charge is 1,185,329.66 - 559,200 = 626,129.66$
answer:
im not sure. what is ur question
step-by-step explanation:
Is there a picture to this????
if your just asking how to find the area of something all you need to do is multiply all the numbers together and the total is the area.
For example if its 8cm,3cm,2cm all you need to do is multiply them together
8x3x2=48 so your area is 48cm
Answer:
A. Five and two eighths feet.
Step-by-step explanation:
42 (feet of yarn) ÷ 8 (equal parts) = 5.25 (feet of yarn that each part is)
5.25 =
or
because 1/4 = 2/8.
Hope this helps!
A coefficient is a numerical or constant quantity placed before and multiplying the variable in an algebraic expression (e.g. 4 in 4x).
The 2 and + are out since they don't have variables(and the + is just a +).
So 4 and x are left. x is a variable, not a coefficient, so the last(and correct) answer is 4.
---
hope it helps
