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Anarel [89]
3 years ago
5

Express answer in exact form. Show all work for full credit.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Gennadij [26K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Area segment = 3/2 π - (9/4)√3 units²

Step-by-step explanation:

∵ The hexagon is regular, then it is formed by 6 equilateral Δ

∵ Area segment = area sector - area Δ

∵ Area sector = (Ф/360) × πr²

∵ Ф = 60° ⇒ central angle of the sector

∵ r = 3

∴ Area sector = (60/360) × (3)² × π = 3/2 π

∵ Area equilateral Δ = 1/4 s²√3

∵ The length of the side of the Δ = 3

∴ Area Δ = 1/4 × (3)² √3 = (9/4)√3

∴ Area segment = 3/2 π - (9/4)√3 units²

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Answer:

9 + 10 = 21

Step-by-step explanation:

9 + 10 = 21

Factor out 9 and 10

9 = 3 · 3   10 = 2 · 5

Next multiply 3 by 2

3 × 2 = 6

Then multiply 3 by 5

3 · 5 = 15

Finally add the products

15 + 6 = 21

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Consider the tables that represent ordered pairs corresponding to a function and its inverse. When comparing the functions using
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Answer:

D)The range of f(x) includes values such that y ≥ 1, so the domain of f–1(x) includes values such that x ≥ 1.

Step-by-step explanation:

The missing tables are:

First table  

x:    0  1    2

f(x): 1   10  100

Second table

x:         1000   100   10

f^-1(x):  3          2       1  

Option A is not correct because f(x) has a y-intercept at (0, 1)

If f(x) has a y-intercept, then f^-1(x) has a x-intercept, which is located at (1, 0). Then option B is not correct

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The x in your equation is 16/5 or 3 1/5 or 3.2 if you want it simplified 
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Refer to the Trowbridge Manufacturing example in Problem 2-35. The quality control inspection proce- dure is to select 6 items,
Ivanshal [37]

Answer:

77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each item, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is defective, or it is not. The probability of an item being defective is independent of other items. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

The true proportion of defects is 0.15

This means that p = 0.15

Sample of 6:

This means that n = 6

What is the probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6?

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{6,0}.(0.15)^{0}.(0.85)^{6} = 0.3771

P(X = 1) = C_{6,1}.(0.15)^{1}.(0.85)^{5} = 0.3993

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.3771 + 0.3993 = 0.7764

77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.

5 0
3 years ago
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