Answer:
9 + 10 = 21
Step-by-step explanation:
9 + 10 = 21
Factor out 9 and 10
9 = 3 · 3 10 = 2 · 5
Next multiply 3 by 2
3 × 2 = 6
Then multiply 3 by 5
3 · 5 = 15
Finally add the products
15 + 6 = 21
Answer:
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Answer:
D)The range of f(x) includes values such that y ≥ 1, so the domain of f–1(x) includes values such that x ≥ 1.
Step-by-step explanation:
The missing tables are:
First table
x: 0 1 2
f(x): 1 10 100
Second table
x: 1000 100 10
f^-1(x): 3 2 1
Option A is not correct because f(x) has a y-intercept at (0, 1)
If f(x) has a y-intercept, then f^-1(x) has a x-intercept, which is located at (1, 0). Then option B is not correct
Option C is not correct because the domain of f^-1(x) is associated with x values.
Option D is correct because the domain of f(x) is the range of f^-1(x) and vice versa
The x in your equation is 16/5 or 3 1/5 or 3.2 if you want it simplified
Answer:
77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.
Step-by-step explanation:
For each item, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is defective, or it is not. The probability of an item being defective is independent of other items. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

In which
is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

And p is the probability of X happening.
The true proportion of defects is 0.15
This means that 
Sample of 6:
This means that 
What is the probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6?

In which




77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.