Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:
There are
2 yellow
3 magenta
5 blue
marbles in the bag.
So total of 2 + 3 + 5 = 10 marbles
We have to multiply the probability of yellow on first pick by the probability of yellow on second pick (WITHOUT REPLACEMENT).
We denote P(Y1) as probability of yellow on first draw &
P(Y2) as probability of yellow on second draw
Thus,
P(Y1) = 2/10 = 1/5 [since 2 yellow and 10 total marbles]
Now,
P(Y2) = 1/9 [since now 1 yellow is taken out and NOT replaced, so we have 1 yellow remaining and total 9 marbles]
Now, we multiply:
P(Y1) * P(Y2) = 1/5 * 1/9 = 1/45
The probability is 
Answer:
The answer is 3.
Step-by-step explanation:
Since you do the parentheses first, you will figure out what why is. Y = 3, because 3*3 =9, and 9-9=0.
.05n + .10d = 4.85
n - 34 = d
Substitute the second equation into the first equation and solve for n.
.05n + .10(n - 34) = 4.85
.05n + .10n - 3.4 = 4.85
combine like terms
.15n - 3.4 = 4.85
add 3.4 to both sides
.15n = 8.25
divide both sides by .15
n = 55
d = n - 34
d = 55 - 34
d = 21
CHECK
21 * .1 = 2.10
55 * .05 = 2.75
2.10 + 2.75 = 4.85
21 dimes and 55 nickels