Now,
1 million = 10 lakhs
4 millions = 10 * 4
= 40 lakhs
There are 40 lakhs in 4 millions.
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The answer is B. It is shifted up by 6*1.5-2-2 with is 9-2-2=5.
Unless K is defined, this problem doesn’t make sense...even if we divide over k then k would eventually equal nothing (not zero)