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maw [93]
4 years ago
5

Vector bought 15.6 pounds of paintballs. All together, the balls cost $35.99. About how ,uch did the paintballs cost per pound?

Mathematics
2 answers:
lidiya [134]4 years ago
7 0

Answer: $2.30 or $2.31 if rounding to the nearest hundredth.


Step-by-step explanation:

Divide 35.99 by 15.6. You will get $2.307, so if you are rounding to the nearest hundredth you will get 2.31.

andrey2020 [161]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

around 2.00

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The sum of two numbers is eleven. one number is seven less than the other. find the numbers
Pavlova-9 [17]

Answer:

9 & 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

let x represent the unknown numbers.

x + x-7 = 11

2x = 11+7

2x = 18.

divide both sides by 2.

x = 9.

x-7 = 9-7 = 2

7 0
3 years ago
1. Estimate the area of the irregular shape. Explain your method and show your work.
wlad13 [49]

Answer:

31 square units

Step-by-step explanation:

See the picture below.

Each full or almost full square was counted first. There are 24 of them.

Then parts of squares of counted together to add to 1 square. They are color coded in the figure below. After adding them all up, the total was 31.

6 0
3 years ago
Each day a small business owner sells 200 pizza slices for $1.50 per slice and 85 sandwiches at $3.50 each. Business exspenses c
notsponge [240]

Answer:

The owner's profit for a ten-day period is $4675

Step-by-step explanation:

Each day a small business owner sells 200 pizza slices for $1.50 per slice and 85 sandwiches at $3.50 each.

Let's find the revenue.

Revenue = 200($1.50) + 85($3.50)

= $300 + $297.50

Revenue per day = $597.50

Revenue for 10 days = 10($597.50) = $5975

Business expenses per day = $130

Business expenses for 10 days = 10($130) = $1300

Now let's find the profit.

Profit for 10 days = Revenue - Expense

= $5975 - $1300

= $4675

So the owner's profit for a ten-day period is $4675

6 0
4 years ago
What is the probability that the system does not have a type 2defect?b.What is the probability that the system has both type 1 a
Lana71 [14]

Answer:

a.  0.93 b. 0.06 c. 0.05

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability is commonly known as the chance of success of a particular event. The probability of failure of the event can also be estimated.

(a) Probability of not having type 2 defect is: P(A_{2}^{'})  = 1 - P(A_{2}) = 1 - 0.07 = 0.93

(b) Probability of having type 1 and 2 defects is: P(A_{1} n A_{2}) = P(A_{1}) + P(A_{2}) - P(A_{1}U A_{2}) = 0.12 + 0.07 - 0.13 = 0.06

(c) probability pf having both type 1 and type 2 defects but not type 3 defect is:

P(A_{1} + A_{2} + A^{'} _{3}) = P(A_{1} n A_{2}) - P(A_{1} n A_{2} n A_{3}) = 0.06 - 0.01 = 0.05

3 0
3 years ago
Angela invested $4000 in an account that earns 5% interest yearly (simple interest). She forgets about it for 12 years. What is
harina [27]

Answer:

$6400

Step-by-step explanation:

4000x.05=200× 12=2400+4000=$6400

4 0
3 years ago
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