Answer:
C. repetitive production
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that only in Repetitive Production
will you see at most minor variations implemented. This is because this type of operations uses various machines in a pre-set process to make the product, a small change in the product specifications would require ALL of the equipment to be replaced, rearranged, or modified just to be able to implement the changes to the product. This many times costs more money than what the change will generate.
Answer:
Media's net M-1 adjustment to reconcile to its taxable income is $4500
Explanation:
Given data:
Interest income =$6000
The amount of expenses on indebtedness = $1500
Advertising expenses = $8000
Media's net M-1 adjustment is calculated as
M-1 adjustment = interest income - The amount of expenses on indebtedness
M-1 adjustment = $6000 - $1500
M-1 adjustment = $4500
Media's net M-1 adjustment to reconcile to its taxable income is $4500
OOEP and Malay Petroleum are using the cost minimization management approach.
Explanation:
Cost minimization is a technique used in pharmaco economics to evaluate care prices, whether the therapeutic efficacy of different therapies is demonstrably comparable.
The investigator undertaking the research needs to appeal to the medical equivalence and should have done so before prices are that.
Costs management is a primary concept used by manufacturers to evaluate the lowest cost production ratio of labor and capital.
In other words, what will be the most efficient way of providing goods and services although maintaining the optimal quality level.
Answer:
$1.64
Explanation:
Purchasing power parity (PPP) theory simply states that given two countries, exchange rate between them is equal to ratio of the level of prices in the two nations. This is also called absolute purchasing power parity (APPP).
When inflation between the two countries is considered, it becomes to relative purchasing power parity (RPPP). The RPPP states that there will be change in the exchange rate between the two countries when there are differences in inflation rates and prices of commodities in the two countries.
From the question, the difference of 5 percent (i.e. 7 percent - 2 percent = 5 percent) will result in the depreciation the spot exchange rate of the British pound as calculated below:
New spot exchange rate = Old spot exchange rate × (1 - inflation differential)
= $1.73 × (1 - 0.05)
= $1.73 × 0.95
= $1.6435 approximately $1.64
Therefore, the spot rate will adjust to $1.64.
Answer:
The present value of the cashflows will be $12830.30
Explanation:
The present value of the cashflows can be calculated by dividing the cash flows by the appropriate discount rate and for the appropriate time period.
The present value of the given cash flows will be,
Present Value = CF1 / (1+r) + CF2 / (1+r)^2 + .... + CFn / (1+r)^n
As the first payment is received today, it will already be in the present value so it will not be discounted.
Present value = 2000 + 3000 / (1+0.1) + 5000 / (1+0.1)^3 + 7000 / (1+0.1)^5
Present value = $12830.295 rounded off to $12830.30