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kipiarov [429]
3 years ago
13

What is one explanation for why this labor supply curve is upward sloping? the opportunity cost of leisure decreases as wages de

crease. people prefer to spend time doing leisure activities rather than working. labor production functions exhibit diminishing marginal returns. unemployment benefits are steadily declining?
Business
2 answers:
san4es73 [151]3 years ago
8 0
I believe the correct answer is the first option. The labor supply curve is upward sloping because the opportunity cost of leisure decreases as wages decrease and the opposite of such is true as well. As one work one hour more, one will have less time for other activities. As the work rate increases in value, then the opportunity cost increases as well.
Sav [38]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

You correct answer is the fist one the labor supply curve is sloping upwards because the opportunity cost of leisure decreases as wages decline and the opposite is true as well. As you work one more hour, you will have less time for other activities.

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Acheson Corporation, which applies manufacturing overhead on the basis of machine-hours, has provided the following data for its
Amanda [17]

Answer:

Over-applied by $3,842

Explanation:

If<em>, Applied Overheads > Actual Overheads, overheads have been overapplied.</em>

<em>and</em>

<em>Since, Applied Overheads < Actual Overheads, overheads have been under- applied.</em>

Applied Overheads = Predetermined rate x Actual Activity

where,

Predetermined rate = Budgeted Overheads  ÷ Budgeted Activity

therefore,

Predetermined rate = $ 157,050 ÷ 4,500

                                  = $34.90

Applied Overheads = $34.90 x 4,580 = $159,842

<em>Since, Applied Overheads > Actual Overheads, overheads have been overapplied.</em>

Over-applied overheads = $159,842 - $ 156,000 = $3,842

5 0
3 years ago
A baking company has different product ranges like whole-wheat pizzas for the diet-conscious and rich cookies for children and y
Sidana [21]

Answer:

D. market segments

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
In Australia Coca-Cola launched Mother, an energy drink. However, most people did not like the taste. Rather than introducing an
vitfil [10]

Answer: (D) Styling

Explanation:

The coca-cola is changing the styling of products as it increase the marketing and the business. By changing the styling of existing product we make the product more attractive by developing new ideas on the product.

We can create and develop the new product by changing the existing drawbacks and create into the new styling of the product and also re-position the existing product in the market.

By advertising the new products on the different types of platform like the social media we advertising the brand of the products.

Therefore, Option (D) is correct.  

5 0
3 years ago
Shawn puts money into an account. One year later he sees that he has 6 percent more dollars and that his money will buy 5 percen
Paladinen [302]

Answer:

d. The nominal interest rate was 6 percent and the inflation rate was 1 percent.

Explanation:

Nominal interest rate = real interest rate + inflation rate

Real interest rate is nominal interest rate less inflation rate. The real interest rate represents the real purchasing power of interest paid.

If the interest rate buys 5 percent more goods ,it means that the purchasing power and the real interest rate is 5 percent.

The nominal interest rate is 6 %

Inflation rate = nominal interest rate - real interest rate

= 6% - 5% = 1%

I hope my answer helps you.

7 0
3 years ago
Jack's Construction Co. has 80,000 bonds outstanding that are selling at par value. Bonds with similar characteristics are yield
zheka24 [161]

Answer:

WACC 10.42614%

Explanation:

<u>First we use CAPM to solve for the cost of equity</u>

Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)  

risk free 0.04

market rate  

premium market (market rate - risk free) 0.08

beta(non diversifiable risk) 1.1

 

Ke= 0.04 + 1.1 (0.08)  

Ke 0.12800

Then we calculate the WACC (weighted average cost of capital)

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})

D 80,000 bonsd x 1,000 = 80,000,000

E 4,000,000 shares x 40 = 160,000,000

E+ D 80,000,000 + 160,000,000 = 240,000,000

equity weight: 2/3

liability weight: 1/3

Ke 0.128

Equity weight 0.6667

Kd 0.086

Debt Weight 0.3334

t 0.34

WACC = 0.128(0.6667) + 0.086(1-0.34)(0.3334)

WACC 10.42614%

6 0
3 years ago
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