Answer:
Suppose the fraction of blue balls at any given state n is . At the start of the process we have: =1.
Now consider the situation after having drawn n times.
The current fraction of blue balls is , the number of blue balls is therefore 10.
We either draw a red ball, with probability 1−. and the number of red balls, blue balls stay the same (we swap red for red):
(red)=
or we draw a blue ball, with probability and we obtain 10−1 blue balls on a total of 10 balls, thus:
(blue) = (10− 1)/10
The total probability of (fraction of) blue balls after this n'th draw is therefore:
=(red)(1−)+(blue)
which can be simplified to:
=0.9
which leads to:
fn=0.9
At the end of the 10'th draw the fraction of blue balls is equal to:
= ≈ 0.348678
The first, third, fifth and sixth one are all functions.
Answer:
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Step-by-step explanation:
Hope this helps!! <3
M<2 = 90 - 64 = 26
answer
26
You see, the thing is, you dont