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Anika [276]
3 years ago
12

a musician increases the wavelength of the sound waves she produces without changing their speed. What must be happening to thei

r frequency of the waves?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Ilya [14]3 years ago
7 0
Longer wavelength means lower frequency (lower pitch)
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0. 5 the hyphen is over the 5 btw

Step-by-step explanation:

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Please help pleaseeee <br> ----------<br> / 0.09 Type interger or decimal.
Mandarinka [93]

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0.09 = decimal

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3 years ago
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Calculating area of rectangle
PSYCHO15rus [73]

Answer:

Area = 216.108cm^2 --- You

Area = 216.940cm^2 --- Another student

Reason: Because there is a variation in the given dimensions

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Your measurement

Length = 20.70cm; Width =10.44cm

Another students'

Length = 20.74cm; Width =10.46cm

Solving (a): The area

Area is calculated as:

Area = Length * Width

For you

Area = 20.70cm * 10.44cm

Area = 216.108cm^2

For the other student

Area = 20.74cm * 10.46cm

Area = 216.940cm^2

Solving (b): Reason for the variation in the areas

The given measurements are estimates of the dimensions of the rectangle.

Since there is a variation in the estimates, there will be some level of variation in the calculated area.

4 0
3 years ago
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
I WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST!!!!
spayn [35]

Answer:

first: 1/3

second: 1

third: 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
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