Answer:
B. As a risk-averse investor
Explanation:
B. As a risk-averse investor is a correct option . Risk-averse investors can invest in higher risk opportunity only if it offers higher expected return .
Answer:
The long run is longest for Boeing because aircraft production requires large, specialized machines and shortest for Wacky Jack's because providing singing telegrams requires primarily labor.
Explanation:
The current panorama of commercial aircraft manufacturers presents, due to the important high-tech entry barrier that there is a competitive situation between two major manufacturers: the European Airbus consortium and the North American company Boeing. There are many other construction companies, but their technological or production level is far behind them.
But apart from the commercial competition that exists between these manufacturers, logical on the other hand, both share a common interest in their respective strategies by focusing their research, design and manufacturing activities on ensuring the maximum reliability of their aircraft, since it The security they provide during their operational life will depend.
I do not exaggerate if I affirm that no other transport-related industry is subject to such exhaustive processes for its design, manufacture and maintenance as the air transport-related industry, which does not prevent failures from time to time. , some even unsuspected.
Answer:
NPV = $-41,928.18
Explanation:
Net present value is the present value of after tax cash flows from an investment less the amount invested.
NPV can be calculated using a financial calculator:
Cash flow in year 0 = $-300,000
Cash flow each year from year 1 to 10 = $42,000
I = 10%
NPV = $-41,928.18
To find the NPV using a financial calacutor:
1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.
2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.
3. Press compute
I hope my answer helps you
Answer:
Option A is the better choice of the two given any positive rate of return.
Explanation:
Answer:
a. 10.14%
Explanation:
WACC = wE*rE + wP*rP + wD*rD(1-tax) whereby;
w= weight of...
r = cost of..
Find the market values;
Common equity(E) = 5,000,000* 8 = 40,000,000
Preferred stock(P) = 10,000,000
Debt (D) = 100,000 *1000 *0.96 = 96,000,000
Total value = 146,000,000
Therefore;
wE= 0.2740
wP = 0.0685
wD = 0.6575
Cost of capital;
rE = 19% or 0.19
rP = 15% or 0.15
rD = 9% or 0.09
WACC = (0.2740*0.19) + (0.0685 * 0.15) + [0.6575*0.09(1-0.34)]
WACC = 0.0521 + 0.0103 + 0.0391
WACC = 0.1015 or about 10.14%