Ask question

Ask question

All categories

3 years ago

13

Martin has 5 tickets to Cartoon Characters on Ice. They cost him $16.50 each, plus $2.50 in handling per ticket, and $12 in ship

ping. What was the total cost of the tickets

1 answer:

Monica [59]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

$107

Explanation:

Total cost = Fixed cost + variable cost

(16.50 + $2.50 ) × 5= $95

$95 +$12 = $107

I hope my answer helps you

You might be interested in

On October 1, 2018, Renfro Company purchased to hold to maturity, 4,000, $1,000, 9% bonds for $3,960,000 which includes $60,000

Nataliya [291]

Answer:

Carrying Value=$3,903,000

Explanation:

First we will calculate the face value:

Face value=4000*$1000

Face value=$4,000,000

Purchase Price= Bond Purchased price- Accrued Interest

Purchase Price=$3,960,000-$60,000

Purchase Price=$3,900,000

Total months=100 months

Straight line Discount amortization= (Face Value-Purchase Price)/Total Months

Straight line Discount amortization=($4,000,000-$3,900,000)/100

Straight line Discount amortization=$1,000

Discount Amortization=Straight line Discount amortization*Discount months

Discount Amortization=$1,000*3

Discount Amortization=$3,000.

Carrying Value=Purchase Price+Discount Amortization

Carrying Value=$3,900,000+$3,000

Carrying Value=$3,903,000

7 0

4 years ago

What is meant by management being multidimensional

REY [17]

Answer:

In a multidimensional organization, the firm uses different criteria on several levels, reported at the same time, to track its performance.

Explanation:

Managers in a multidimensional organization have common goals. The management process prioritizes decision making

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

On January 1, 2020, NoDice Corporation issues $540,000, 5-year, 12% bonds for $529,000. Interest is paid semiannually on January

Svet_ta [14]

Answer:

Dr Interest expense $33,500

Cr Discount on bonds payable $1,100

Cr Cash $32,400

Explanation:

Discount on bonds payable=$540,000-$529,000=$11,000

Amortization of discount=discount on bonds issue/period of the bond

period to maturity of the bond is 5 years *2 =10 since the bond pays interest semi-annually

Amortization =$11,000/10=$1,100

Semi-annual interest=$540,000*12%/2=$32,400

the bond semi-annual interest expense=discount amortization+interest payment

the bond semi-annual interest expense=$32,400+$1,100=$33,500

5 0

3 years ago

As you read the business news, you come across an advertisement for a bond mutual fund â€“ a fund that pools the investments fro

Alika [10]

Answer:

Follows are the solution to this question:

Explanation:

Follows are the two ways of describing its high return:

Firstly, the mutual fund is invested in pretty unstable debt and is reciprocating with greater yields for taking a risk.

Secondly, during every decrease in bond yields, the finance kept bonds so the income on stocks exceeded this same rate of interest significantly. Remember that bond costs skyrocket as interest rates drop as well as give the purchaser an investment income. Because once interest rates are now close to zero, it's also likely that they could increase as well as the owners would then lose their money. Its high return could be due to a drop in interest rates, and not only will it not be replicated, but the low or even low return will almost definitely be followed by either a rise in interest rates.

6 0

3 years ago

You purchased an annual interest coupon bond one year ago that had six years remaining to maturity at that time. The coupon inte

Marat540 [252]

Answer:

The correct answer to the following question will be "8%".

Explanation:

The given values are:

Number of years of maturity = 5 years

Interest rate of coupon = 10%

= 10%×1000

= 100

Yield to maturity, YTM = 8%

As we know,

Price of Bond = PV of Coupons + PV of Per Value

On putting the values in the above formula, we get

⇒ = $\frac{100\times (1-(1+8 \ percent^{-5}))}{8 \ percent} +\frac{1000}{1+8 \ percent^{5}}$

⇒ = $1079.85$

After 1 years, we get

Price of Bond = PV of Coupons + PV of Per Value

On putting the values in the above formula, we get

⇒ = $\frac{100\times (1-(1+8 \ percent^{-4}))}{8 \ percent} +\frac{1000}{1+8 \ percent^{4}}$

⇒ = $1066.24$

Now,

The total return rate = $\frac{(1066.24-1079.85+100)}{1079.85}$

= $\frac{86.39}{1079.85}$

= $8 \ percent$

7 0

3 years ago