8:4 is equal to 16:64?? True or false

Mathematics

2 answers:

BaLLatris [955]3 years ago

7 0

False. 16:64 is basically 16/64. So divide 16:64 by two. That would equal 8:32 so FALSE

hodyreva [135]3 years ago

5 0

False, because if you multiply 8*2 is will equals to 16 but 4*2 doesn't equal to 64. (* means times)

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Which dimensions can create only one unique triangle?

ArbitrLikvidat [17]

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Does anyone know how to do this ??? <br> -view attachment

cricket20 [7]

As soon as I read this, the words "law of cosines" popped
into my head. I don't have a good intuitive feeling for the
law of cosines, but I went and looked it up (you probably
could have done that), and I found that it's exactly what
you need for this problem.

The "law of cosines" relates the lengths of the sides of any
triangle to the cosine of one of its angles ... just what we need,
since we know all the sides, and we want to find one of the angles.

To find angle-B, the law of cosines says

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B = angle-B
b = the side opposite angle-B = 1.4
a, c = the other 2 sides = 1 and 1.9

(1.4)² = (1)² + (1.9)² - (2 x 1 x 1.9) cos(B)

   1.96 = (1) + (3.61) - (3.8) cos(B)

Add 3.8 cos(B) from each side:

   1.96 + 3.8 cos(B) = 4.61

Subtract 1.96 from each side:

   3.8 cos(B) = 2.65

Divide each side by 3.8 :

cos(B) = 0.69737 (rounded)

Whipping out the
trusty calculator:
   B = the angle whose cosine is 0.69737

      = 45.784° .

Now, for the first time, I'll take a deep breath, then hold it
while I look back at the question and see whether this is
anywhere near one of the choices ...

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I'll bet that's it !

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8090 [49]

Answer:

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