Answer:
The second option which 5 years to maturity exhibited a lower price of
$523.95
Explanation:
In order to ascertain the option with lower, it is important we determine the price of each investment based on the fact the price of an investment opportunity today is the present value of its future cash flow is the maturity value of $1000 in both cases:
a.
PV=FV/(1+r)^n
PV=price of investment
FV=future value=$1000
r= 13.80%.
n=4 years
PV=$1000/(1+13.80%)^4
PV=$596.25
b.
PV=FV/(1+r)^n
PV=price of investment
FV=future value=$1000
r= 13.80%.
n=5 years
PV=$1000/(1+13.80%)^5
PV= $523.95
Efficiency will undoubtedly suffer if the US government increases assistance payments to the poorest Americans while raising income taxes on the wealthiest Americans and an increase in inequality.
<h3>What will happen if the U.S. raises taxes on the wealthiest Americans?</h3>
Every society must choose between equality and productivity. If the US government increases assistance payments to the poorest Americans while raising income taxes on the wealthiest Americans, the outcome will probably be a decline and increased inequality in the United States.
To know more about it, visit:
brainly.com/question/14366514
#SPJ4
Inflation is the economic condition in which the interest rate keeps increasing which is beneficial for the lenders. But not a fixed rate lender.
<h3 /><h3>What is Interest Rate?</h3>
Interest rate is the prevailing market rate which the lender of the money gets in return for the money provided as a loan.
If there is a fixed interest contract the lender will get the same percentage of return for the duration of contract, no matter the fluctuation of the interest rate in the market. This is not beneficial when the economy is facing inflation. As whatever be the rate in the market (definitely higher) the lender will get the same percentage of return.
However if there is a variable rate contract the rate is updated and the lender is paid at the updated interest rate. This is beneficial when the economy is facing inflation.
Learn more about interest rates at brainly.com/question/28142837
#SPJ1
Answer:
The correct answer is: firms are unlikely to undertake investment.
Explanation:
The liquidity trap is a situation described in the Keynesian economy according to which, liquidity injections into the private banking system by the central bank do not lower interest rates or inject money into the economy and therefore do not stimulate economic growth as claimed by monetarism.
The liquidity trap occurs when people accumulate cash because they expect an adverse event, such as deflation, reduction in aggregate demand and GDP, an increase in the unemployment rate or a war. People are not buying, companies are not borrowing and banks are not lending either because they do not have enough solvency since the economic outlook is uncertain and investors do not invest because the expected returns on investments are low.
The most common characteristics of a liquidity trap are interest rates close to zero and fluctuations in the monetary base that do not translate into fluctuations in general price levels.
Answer:
$0.15 hours per unit
Explanation:
Given that
Direct material cost = $16
Assume Direct labor cost = X
Manufacturing overheads = $18
Profit margin = 20%
Direct labor per hour cost = $28
The computation of direct labor-hour input is shown below:-
Total manufacturing cost = X + $34
Total cost of goods sold = (X + $34) × 1.7 = $66
Direct labor cost per unit
= (X + $34) = $38.82
= $38.82 - $34
= $4.32
Direct labor hours per unit = Direct labor cost per unit ÷ Direct labor per hour cost
= $4.32 ÷ $28
= $0.15 hours per unit