Answer:
The GDP for year 1, year 2, and year 3 is $12, $20 and, $30 respectively.
Explanation:
The nominal GDP is the value of goods and services produced in an economy in a year.
Here, the economy produces only chocolate bars. So we can find nominal GDP by calculating the value of chocolate bars produced in each year.
Nominal GDP for year 1
= 
= 
=$12
Nominal GDP for year 2
=
= 
=$20
Nominal GDP for year 3
=
= 
=$30
Game theory suggests that competing firms in an oligopolistic industry may be reluctant to change prices because they anticipate that rivals will match price cuts but ignore price increases.
<h3>What is Game theory?</h3>
Game theory looks at the interactions between participants in a competitive game and calculates the best choice for the player.
Dominant strategy is the best option for a player regardless of what the other player is playing. Nash equilibrium is the best outcome for players where no player has an incentive to change their decisions.
Here are the options:
. too quick to raise prices because they will fail to anticipate that rivals may gain market shares.
b. reluctant to change prices because they anticipate that rivals will match price cuts but ignore price increases
c. reluctant to change prices because they anticipate that rivals will ignore price cuts but match price increases
d. too quick to cut prices because they fail to anticipate that rivals may also cut their prices.
To learn more about game theory, please check: brainly.com/question/25746243
Answer:
$96,000
Explanation:
The computation of the overhead amount assigned to Product A1 each year is shown below:
= Overhead cost incurred per year ÷ number of hours worked by machine department × machine hours at Product A1
= $480,000 ÷ 5,000 hours × 1,000 hours
= $96,000
We simply applied the above formula so that the overhead cost assigned could come
Answer:
Annual deposit= $2,456.96
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
The number of years= 5 years
Final value= $15,000
Interest rate= 10%
We need to calculate the annual deposit to reach the objective. We will use the following formula:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual deposit
Isolating A:
A= (FV*i)/{[(1+i)^n]-1}
A= (15,000*0.1) / [(1.10^5)-1]
A= $2,456.96
Answer:
The correct option is A, abnormal price change at the announcement
Explanation:
Abnormal price increase before the announcement would only be the case if the there was insider dealing, that is there exists information leakage.
An abnormal price decrease cannot be the case, the market prices a share based on its earnings' strength, in other words a stock with high dividends prospect is priced high.
Option D is wrong there would a price change stemming from the announcement made about large cash dividends payout
