Answer: In year three the preferred stockholders would receive $7,000 and the common stockholders would receive $25,000.
Explanation: Preferred stockholders are always paid before common stockholders. Since this stock in cumulative it means that when there is not enough income in one year to pay the preferred stock then the company needs to pay them when they have the money in the future.
In this case the preferred stock is 5% of $100 par value and is cumulative. This means that every year the company needs to pay 5% times $100 par value on each stock, and there is 1,000 shares, so the total is $5,000 in preferred stock dividends.
In year one and two they did not declare enough dividends to pay this full amount. In year one they declared $2,000 and year two they declared $6,000. At the end of year two they should have received $10,000, but only received $8,000. In year three they need to pay the preferred stockholders the $2,000 that are in arrears, plus the $5,000 for year three, for a total of $7,000. Since there was $32,000 in dividends declared and $7,000 is going to the preferred stockholders, it means that there is $25,000 left for the common stockholders. $25,000/10,000 shares equals $2.50 dividend per share.
The pre-tax cost of debt is yield to maturity of the debt.
The yield to maturity of debt is calculated as -
Yield to maturity = ]Coupon payment + ( Face value - Current price) / Number of years)] / [ ( Face value + Current price) / 2]
Here,
Coupon payment = $ 29.50 (semi-annual, thus 5.9% / 2 * 1000)
Face value = $ 1,000
Price = $ 1,000 * 108% = $ 1,080
Number of years = 12 ( semi-annual, thus 6 years * 2)
Pre-tax cost of debt = [ 29.50 + (1,000 - 1080/12)] / [ (1000+1080)/2 ]
Pre-tax cost of debt = 2.196 %
Annual pre-tax cost of debt = = 2.20 % * 2 = 4.40%
After tax cost of debt = ( 1 - tax rate ) * Annual pre-tax cost of debt
After tax cost of debt = ( 1 - 35%) * 4.40 %
After tax cost of debt = 2.86 %
Answer:
Top-down planning
Explanation:
Top-down planning -
It refers to the method planning , where the goals are bifurcated and placed according to the hierarchy from top to bottom , is referred to as top - down planning .
As breaking and arranging the goals , make the process to accomplish the goals in a better manner .
The process require the movement from higher level to lower level , in a very orderly manner to hasten the process .
Hence , from the given scenario of the question ,
The correct answer is Top-down planning .
Answer:
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 48000 after tax cash flow
Explanation:
a. lets assume marginal tax rate is X%
After tax cash flow of 80000 should equal to 60000$
$80000 - [$80000*X%] = 60000$
80000*X% = 80000-60000
80000*X% =20000
X = 20000/80000
= 25%
b.
$80000 - [$80000*50%*x%] = 60000$
40000*x%=20000
x%=50%
c.
$80000- [$80000*x] = 60000 - [60000*50%*x]
80000-60000 = [80000*x] - [30000*x]
20000 = 50000x
x=40%
check
80000-40% =48000 after tax cash flow
60000*50%
=60000- [60000*50%*40%]
=48000 after tax cash flow
Answer:
Cash $10,430 ; Cash equivalents $20,400
Explanation.
Cash consist of all currencies in hand or any convertible asset which can be converted to cash immediately.
It is to be noted that the assets with high liquidity will be included in cash and cash equivalent balance. They can quickly be converted to cash and would normally have 90 or lesser days to mature.
Solution.
$
Cash in bank. 8,540
Petty cash. 250
Check from customer. 1,350
Money order. 290
Cash. 10,430
The check has a very short maturity period since it will clear within 3-4 working days.
Money order can be cashed immediately .
Therefore;
Cash value is $10,430
For cash equivalent,
Cash equivalent = Money market fund balance + Treasury bills maturing in 60days
Cash equivalents = $10,400 + $10,000
=$20,400.
The amounts considered as cash and cash equivalents as of 31 December are ;
Cash $10,430 , $20,400 respectively.
