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Korvikt [17]
3 years ago
6

Jeremy operates a business as a sole proprietorship. The proprietorship uses the cash method of accounting. He decides to incorp

orate and transfers the assets and liabilities of the sole proprietorship to the newly formed corporation in exchange for its stock. The​ assets, which include​ $10,000 of accounts receivable with a zero​ basis, have a basis of​ $20,000 and an FMV of​ $40,000. The liabilities include accounts payable of​ $12,000, which will be deductible when​ paid, and a note payable on medical equipment of​ $7,000. Jeremy's basis for his stock is
Business
1 answer:
ollegr [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

$13,000

Explanation:

Given that:

Jeremy operates a business as a sole proprietorship which uses a cash method of accounting. Now he is planning transfer them into a new corporation in  exchange for its stock.

The assets are :

$10,000 of accounts receivable with a zero​ basis

have a basis of​ $20,000  and an FMV of​ $40,000

Liabilities

payable of $12,000

The note payable on medical equipment is​ $7,000.

Therefore , Jeremy's basis for his stock is : $20,000 -$7,000 = $13,000

since  that will reduce the  basis by amount of the note payable.

The liabilities payable will be deducted and taken care of by the corporation.

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If a costumer has a coupon for 30% off any skateboard and then another coupon for an extra 5% off a total purchase, you can simp
omeli [17]

Answer:

TRUE

Explanation:

It is true that if a costumer has a coupon for 30% off any skateboard and then another coupon for an extra 5% off a total purchase, you can simply add the coupons together to determine the discount as long as they are only buying one skateboard .

The above assertion is correct because the amount of the skateboard will be the same as the amount for the sale, hence both percentages making up 35% can be applied to the skateboard amount.

<u>However if they buying more items than just a skateboard, the total amounts of the different items of purchase has to be added before applying the discount percentage.</u>

<u />

3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
July 1 Sold $21,200 of computers to Company with terms 3/15, n/60. Riverbed uses the gross method to record cash discounts. Rive
Setler79 [48]

Question is incomplete. I will try to answer to the best of my ability.

Answer and Explanation:

The credit terms '3/15, n/60' and '2/10, n/30' mentioned in the question signifies the terms in which riverbed has sold its product to the buyer.

3/15, n/60 means that if the buyer pays with 15 days since the transaction takes place then the buyer would receive 3% on the receivable.

However, if they fail to pay within 15 days then the buyer would have to pay the full amount within 60 days.

Similarly, 2/10, n/30 means 2% discount within 10 days since the transaction took place. Otherwise full payment after 10 day.

4 0
3 years ago
Holly and matt want to use the "nonworking" spouse method to determine the amount of life insurance coverage they need. if their
Maksim231197 [3]

The best answer for this question would be:

 

$150,000

 

Because in the method of the “non-working” spouse method, they are given a calculation of (18 - youngest child's age) × $10,000 (18 being the legal age)

 

Resulting that the solution would be:

<span> (18 - 3) × $10,000 = $150,000</span>

8 0
4 years ago
A Six sigma (6s) approach to quality focuses on preventing defects by using customer feedback to reduce variation and waste. Gro
andre [41]

Answer:

False

Explanation:

Six sigma is a tool used by organizations to improve their processes and reduce defects, to improve quality of their products or services.

<u><em>It focuses on reducing variation in the business processes (from manufacturing, sales, delivery, to customer service), to reduce defects and increase the quality of goods and services</em></u><em>.</em> <em>It also generally improves organizational performance and increases profit.</em>

Six sigma does NOT focus on customers feedback to reduce variation and waste.

3 0
3 years ago
Miltmar Corporation will pay a year-end dividend of $5, and dividends thereafter are expected to grow at the constant rate of 4%
morpeh [17]

Answer:

a. 10.04%

b. $82.78

Explanation:

In this question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below

a. Expected rate of return or market capitalization = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)

= 5% + 0.72 × (12% - 5%)

= 5% + 0.72 × 7%

= 5% + 5.04%

= 10.04%

The Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return) is also known as the market risk premium and the same is applied.

b. Now the intrinsic value would be

= Expected dividend ÷ (Required rate of return - growth rate)  

= $5 ÷ (10.04% - 4%)

= $5 ÷ 6.04%

= $82.78

7 0
3 years ago
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