Answer:
TRUE
Explanation:
It is true that if a costumer has a coupon for 30% off any skateboard and then another coupon for an extra 5% off a total purchase, you can simply add the coupons together to determine the discount as long as they are only buying one skateboard
.
The above assertion is correct because the amount of the skateboard will be the same as the amount for the sale, hence both percentages making up 35% can be applied to the skateboard amount.
<u>However if they buying more items than just a skateboard, the total amounts of the different items of purchase has to be added before applying the discount percentage.</u>
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Question is incomplete. I will try to answer to the best of my ability.
Answer and Explanation:
The credit terms '3/15, n/60' and '2/10, n/30' mentioned in the question signifies the terms in which riverbed has sold its product to the buyer.
3/15, n/60 means that if the buyer pays with 15 days since the transaction takes place then the buyer would receive 3% on the receivable.
However, if they fail to pay within 15 days then the buyer would have to pay the full amount within 60 days.
Similarly, 2/10, n/30 means 2% discount within 10 days since the transaction took place. Otherwise full payment after 10 day.
The best answer for this question would be:
$150,000
Because in the method of the “non-working” spouse method, they are given a calculation of (18 - youngest child's age) × $10,000 (18 being the legal age)
Resulting that the solution would be:
<span> (18 - 3) × $10,000 = $150,000</span>
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Six sigma is a tool used by organizations to improve their processes and reduce defects, to improve quality of their products or services.
<u><em>It focuses on reducing variation in the business processes (from manufacturing, sales, delivery, to customer service), to reduce defects and increase the quality of goods and services</em></u><em>.</em> <em>It also generally improves organizational performance and increases profit.</em>
Six sigma does NOT focus on customers feedback to reduce variation and waste.
Answer:
a. 10.04%
b. $82.78
Explanation:
In this question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below
a. Expected rate of return or market capitalization = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)
= 5% + 0.72 × (12% - 5%)
= 5% + 0.72 × 7%
= 5% + 5.04%
= 10.04%
The Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return) is also known as the market risk premium and the same is applied.
b. Now the intrinsic value would be
= Expected dividend ÷ (Required rate of return - growth rate)
= $5 ÷ (10.04% - 4%)
= $5 ÷ 6.04%
= $82.78