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Rus_ich [418]
4 years ago
9

I estimated my bag of chips would have 20 chips, but it really had 16. Was was my percent error ? Round to the nearest percent

Mathematics
1 answer:
VLD [36.1K]4 years ago
3 0
    Ok so............ you take 16 and 20 and divide them both into 4.. .....you get 4 and 5 right? Then, you take 4 and 5 and put them into a fraction....4/5! Ok so then you you calculate 4/5 into a percent which is 80% !!!
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What is –9 – (–13) and how do you solve
olga_2 [115]
The answer is 4. you distribute the negative to make a positive sign and then add
4 0
3 years ago
The club will use the plurality criterion without elimination method to determine the final winner. Parker wins the contest by r
goldenfox [79]

Answer:

No

Explanation:

The independent irrelevant alternative criterion is not violated here. The law of irrelevant alternative criterion holds that if candidate A is liked more than candidate B then a new candidate C who is liked less than candidate A should not spoil the victory of Candidate A, so that candidate B wins.

In the example in the question, candidate Parker was the preferred candidate before the elimination of candidate Myers and so will still be the winner of the election, therefore the irrelevant alternative criterion has not been violated.

5 0
3 years ago
1/9-1/x divided by 1/81-1/x2
dedylja [7]

STEP

1

:

           1

Simplify   —

           x

Equation at the end of step

1

:

 1    1

 — -  —

 9    x

STEP

2

:

           1

Simplify   —

           9

Equation at the end of step

2

:

 1    1

 — -  —

 9    x

STEP

1

:

            1

Simplify   ——

           x2

Equation at the end of step

1

:

  1 1      1  1

 (—-—) ÷ (——-——)

  9 x     81 x2

STEP

2

:

            1

Simplify   ——

           81

Equation at the end of step

2

:

  1    1      1     1

 (— -  —) ÷ (—— -  ——)

  9    x     81    x2

(9x)/(x+9)-:(x-9)/(9x)

7 0
4 years ago
The shape of the distribution of the time required to get an oil change at a 15-minute oil-change facility is unknown. However,
horsena [70]

Answer:

The mean oil-change time that would there be a 10% chance of being at or below is 15.46 minutes.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that records indicate that the mean time is 16.2 minutes, and the standard deviation is 3.4 minutes.

On a typical​ Saturday, the​ oil-change facility will perform 35 oil changes between 10 A.M. and 12 P.M. Assuming that data follows normal distribution.

Let \bar X = <u><em>sample mean time</em></u>

The z score probability distribution for sample mean is given by;

                          Z  =  \frac{\bar X-\mu}{\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n} } }  ~ N(0,1)

where, \mu = population mean time = 16.2 minutes

            \sigma = standard deviation = 3.4 minutes

            n = sample size = 35 oil changes

<u>Now, the mean oil-change time that would there be a 10% chance of being at or below is given by;</u>

<u></u>

          P(X \leq x) = 0.10          {where x is required mean oil-change time}

          P( \frac{\bar X-\mu}{\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n} } } \leq \frac{x-16.2}{\frac{3.4}{\sqrt{35} } } ) = 0.10

          P(Z \leq \frac{x-16.2}{\frac{3.4}{\sqrt{35} } } ) = 0.10

Now, in the z table the critical value of X which represents the below 10% of the probability area is given as -1.282, that means;

                  \frac{x-16.2}{\frac{3.4}{\sqrt{35} } }  =  -1.282

               x - 16.2  =  -1.282 \times {\frac{3.4}{\sqrt{35} } }

                         x  =  16.2 - 0.74 = <u>15.46 minutes</u>

Hence, the mean oil-change time that would there be a 10% chance of being at or below is 15.46 minutes.

8 0
3 years ago
*PLEASE ANSWER!!! THANK YOU*
alekssr [168]

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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