Answer:
The correct answer is letter "B": The rate of return decreases.
Explanation:
Net Present Value or NPV is a mathematical calculation used to determine if a project could be profitable or not. NPV is obtained by subtracting the present value of outflows from the present value of inflows, In case NPV is positive, it is expected a project will provide the firm profits, while a negative NPV implies the company incurring in losses.
<em>The Rate of Return (RoR) has an inverse relation with the NPV meaning if the RoR decreases the NPV will increase and vice versa.</em>
Answer:
A. For every single transaction, at least two accounts will be
affected.
Explanation:
Double-entry accounting is a record-keeping method where a transaction is recorded in a minimum of two accounts. There is no upper ceiling on the actual number of accounts that may be used in a transaction.
Every account has two columns, with debits on the left and credit entries on the right. The aggregate of the debit entries must equal the result of all credit entries. If this happens, the transaction has balanced. If not, the transaction is "out of balance."
Answer:The Company needs to sell 1.11 million shares.
Explanation:
Since 8% shares are already taken b underwriters, the Compay needs to sell 92% of shares. So 92% of total amount (65.4 million) is $ 60.168 million. We will divide the amount by price per share of $54 to get amount of shares needed to be sold. So after dividing is $ 60.168 million by $54, we get 1.11 million shares which is the answere.
First, you have to calculate the amount of tuition when the student reaches age 18. Do this by multiplying $11,000 by 1.07 each year from age 12 until it reaches age 18. Thus, 7 times.
At age 18: 16,508
At age 19: 17,664
At age 20: 18,900
At age 21: 20,223
Then, we use this formula:
A = F { i/{[(1+i)^n] - 1}}
where A is the monthly deposit each year, F is the half amount of the tuition each year illustrated in the first part of this solution, n is the number of years lapsed.
At age 18:
A = (16508/2) { 0.04/{[(1+0.04)^6] - 1}} = $1,244.389 deposit for the 1st year
Ate age 19
A = (17664/2) { 0.04/{[(1+0.04)^7] = $1,118 deposit for the 2nd year
At age 20:
A = (18900/2) { 0.04/{[(1+0.04)^8] = $1,025 deposit for the 3rd year
At age 21:
A = (18900/2) { 0.04/{[(1+0.04)^8] = $955 deposit for the 4th year
Answer:
The correct answer is option A.
Explanation:
According to the mainstream business cycle theory, the potential GDP grows at a steady rate while the aggregate demand grows at a fluctuating rate. The money wage rate is considered to be sticky.
So when aggregate demand increases more than the potential GDP, the supply is not able to increase as much as demand. This creates an inflationary gap in the economy.
