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Anna71 [15]
3 years ago
7

A property is purchased for $110,000. The lender provides a loan for $85,000. He offers a very attractive interest rate of 3% wi

th 3 discount points. What did the lender charge for points?
Business
1 answer:
zlopas [31]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The lender charged $2,550 for the points.

Explanation:

Discount points is a type of prepaid fees that mortgage borrowers can purchase from the lenders that lowers the quantity of interest that the borrower will have to pay in the future. In general, the discount points costs 1% of the amount borrowed. A discount point usually lowers the loan interest amount to be paid by an one-eight to one-quarter of a percent.

To determine the charge for the points in our case above, we can express the discount charge points as shown;

D=R×L

where;

D=discount point charge

R=standard discount point rate

L=loan amount

In our case;

D=unknown

R=1%

L=$85,000

replacing;

D=(1/100)×85,000=$850

The lender charged $850 for one points.

Determine the total charge for all the points purchased using the expression below;

T=D×N

where;

T=total charge for all the points

D=charge per point

N=number of points purchased

In our case;

T=unknown

D=$850

N=3 points

replacing;

T=850×3=$2,550

The lender charged $2,550 for the points.

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Financial economists prefer to use market values rather than book values when measuring debt ratios because market values are:__
Sindrei [870]

Financial economists prefer to use market values rather than book values when measuring debt ratios because market values are a better reflection of current value than historical value. the correct answer is option(b).

Market capitalization is frequently used to refer to market value, which is the price an asset commands on the market. Because they depend on a variety of variables, including the physical working environment, the overall state of the economy, and the dynamics of supply and demand, market values are dynamic in nature.

An asset's book value is determined by the balance in its balance sheet account. Asset values are determined by subtracting any depreciation, amortization, or impairment expenses from the asset's initial cost.

Since market value includes profitability, intangibles, and potential for future growth, it typically exceeds book value for a company. The net asset value investors receive when they purchase shares is measured using book value per share.

The complete question is:

Financial economists prefer to use market values when measuring debt ratios because:

  1. market values are more stable than book values.
  2. market values are a better reflection of current value than historical value.
  3. market values are readily available and do not have to be calculated like book values.
  4. market values are more difficult to calculate which makes financial economists more valuable
  5. None of these.

To know more about  market values refer to: brainly.com/question/19131751

#SPJ4

6 0
2 years ago
Delta Insurers typically affirms or denies claims within 120 days after it receives proof of loss statements. Which statement is
laiz [17]

Answer:

Statement A

Explanation:

The 2 statements are:

A: The firm Delta Insurers typically affirms claims within 120 days after it receives proof of loss statements

B: The firm Delta Insurers typically denies claims within 120 days after it receives proof of loss statements

The explanation for this is:

- The company is an insurance company

- An insurance company holds funds for their customers; to be released when the customer is less privileged or in a bad situation, depending on the type of insurance made

- There is car insurance, house insurance, life assurance, etcetera.

- So if the insurance company receives proof of loss statements from the customer, it will release funds to solve the customer's dire need

- In this case, it takes 120 days to verify, process and then agree (affirm) to release funds (claims) to the affected customer.

So the answer is Statement A.

8 0
3 years ago
A manager believes his firm will earn a 16 percent return next year. His firm has a beta of 1.5. The expected return on the mark
Natali5045456 [20]

Answer:

19%

Overvalued

Explanation:

Computation for the return the firm should earn

Using this formula

The firm's required return=Risk-free rate+Beta×( Expected return-Risk-free rate)

Let plug in the formula

The firm's required return = 4% + 1.5 x (14% - 4%)

The firm's required return =4%+1.5×10%

The firm's required return =0.19*100

The firm's required return =19%

Based on the above calculation the firm's required return is 19% in which the manager believes a 16% return will be achieved which means that manager is saying the firm is OVERVALUED relative to their own estimate.

3 0
3 years ago
Suppose that the rise in the price of coffee beans resulted in a large decrease in the supply of Starbucks coffee while the lowe
tigry1 [53]

Answer:

A price that is higher and lower quantity of Starbucks coffee

Explanation:

There was only a small decrease in demand for Starbucks coffee, and demand has been greatly decreased.

The demand for Starbucks coffee will remain high, supply will be limited and this will push the price high due to scarcity of the coffee.

3 0
3 years ago
You are analyzing a project and have developed the following estimates: unit sales = 2,150, price per unit = $84, variable cost
MrRissso [65]

Answer:

The answer is: an increase of $1,397.50

Explanation:

First we have to calculate the net income for the original sale price per unit of $84 and then subtract the depreciation expenses and taxes to calculate the operating cash flow:

total revenue (2,150 x $84)                                    $180,600

cost of goods sold (2,150 x $57)                           ($122,550)

<u>SG&A, operating expenses                                   ($13,900)      </u>  

net income                                                              $44,150

<u>depreciation expense                                            ($8,300)       </u>

EBIT                                                                         $35,850

<u>taxes (35%)                                                             ($12,547.50) </u>

operating cash flow                                              $23,302.50  

Then we calculate the new net income for the second sale price per unit of $85 and then subtract the depreciation expenses and taxes to calculate the new operating cash flow:

total revenue (2,150 x $85)                                    $182,750

cost of goods sold (2,150 x $57)                           ($122,550)

<u>SG&A, operating expenses                                   ($13,900)      </u>

net income                                                              $46,300

<u>depreciation expense                                            ($8,300)       </u>

EBIT B                                                                      $38,000

<u>taxes (35%)                                                             ($13,300)      </u>

operating cash flow B                                           $24,700

An increase of $1 in the selling price will result in an increase of $1,397.50 on the operating cash flow.  

5 0
3 years ago
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