1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Zarrin [17]
3 years ago
10

Generally speaking, why were girls not as well-educated as boys early in America's history?

History
2 answers:
mariarad [96]3 years ago
8 0
Because they aren’t treated equallly
Tatiana [17]3 years ago
7 0
Because they weren’t treated equally. Girls were classified as the less dominant part of the species because they were “weak”.
You might be interested in
In a paragraph of 125+ words, explain why things following World War II were far from "normal," even though people wanted a retu
suter [353]
The war effected many people. Many people died, most resources, if not all, went to the war. After the war, many people wanted to be normal again but could not. The war had effected the economy, people's lives, and some political views. A lot of people had a hard time with getting jobs or money and a lot of families were devastated by the war. Not only normal people were effected, also countries as a whole. The relations between communist countries, such as the Soviet Union, and non-communist countries, such as America, stayed tense. Even until this day, these countries have issues and a third world war is somewhere in the back of our minds'. The Cold War began after World War 2 and it did not end until the late twentieth century.
5 0
3 years ago
This person is considered “one of the most detested" English kings<br> John<br> Charles<br> Henry II
Nastasia [14]

Answer:

King John I

Explanation:

King John I may forever be known as a Bad King following that seminal history textbook 1066 and All That, but according to history authors, it is Henry VIII who should bear the title of the worst monarch in history

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Why did Thomas Paine move to colonies?
KATRIN_1 [288]

Answer:

Thomas Paine arrived in the American colonies in 1774, as the conflict between aggrieved colonists and Britain was reaching its height. After the Battles of Lexington and Concord in 1775, Paine argued that the colonists' cause should be not just a revolt against taxation but a demand for independence.

4 0
3 years ago
In Babylon did people make more money in citys or in the country?​ and why?
Natasha_Volkova [10]

Answer:

They made money working in the country

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
What did Eisenhower do as a result of this fear?
Fynjy0 [20]
Idk this is hard :(((
4 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Why did the Mormons face troubles with their neighbors in Independence, Missouri?
    9·1 answer
  • Which president ordered a continuous bombing campaign over North Vietnam and sent the first combat troops to South Vietnam?
    6·1 answer
  • Which of the following statements about Africa is most correct?
    12·1 answer
  • Why wasnt there a great need or desire for book in the middle agaes
    6·1 answer
  • The Mayflower Compact differed from the Magna Carta in that it
    7·2 answers
  • Why were griots important to African society?
    7·1 answer
  • What’s the answer????
    15·1 answer
  • The global economy___.
    13·1 answer
  • What is one lasting effect of the Arab-Israeli War on the Middle East?
    11·1 answer
  • True or False? The U.S. Constitution defines what our government can do. If a law is passed that goes against what the Constitut
    6·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!