Answer:
Hello! I hope I am correct! :)
Step-by-step explanation:
Let’s first calculate the black circle & the white space.
Since there is more white space than the black circle, we already know that the white space will have more probability.
These are the steps you need to do, in order to so love this problem:
1. Find the area of both, the white space and the black circle.
2. Divide both of them by the area of the square.
3. Do all these steps to find the probability/hitting.
Part A:
Black circle: ( π *1^2) / ( π 5^2) = 1/25 = .04 or 3.14% chance.
So we can tell it’s close to zero.
Part B: 1 - .04 = 0.96 or 97%
This is close to one.
(Remember I am not saying the exact, it’s a estimate)
Brainliest would be appreciated!
Hope this helps! :)
By; BrainlyAnime
I believe the answer would still be 0 because 1/3 of 0 is 0
Answer:
Yes it does
Step-by-step explanation:
<span>We have lateral faces that are rectangles and 2 congruent polygons that are bases. This must be 3-dimensional solid figure - quadrilateral prism. If those 2 bases are squares then it is a rectangular prism, but the bases also can be 2 rhombuses. Answer: Quadrilateral prism.</span><span />
Answer:
0.375
1.4
3
1.66666666667
Step-by-step explanation:
Divide the numerator (top number) by the denominator (bottom).
