1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
yaroslaw [1]
3 years ago
14

What led to specialization and division of labor in Mesopotamia?

History
2 answers:
Kay [80]3 years ago
5 0
I think the answer to question 1 is Reliable and plentiful food production allowed some farmers to quit farming question 2 would be Polytheism 3 would be the Hittites. sorry about the other ones :(
BartSMP [9]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: the correct sequence is 1.-Reliable and plentiful food production allowed some farmers to quit farming.  2.- monotheism 3.- Assyrians 4.- People should pay tribute to the gods. 5.-their system of roads  6.-True 7.- both a and b  8.- True 9.-Chaldeans 10.-True

You might be interested in
How did the romans finally change their government after 200 years of harsh monarchic rule
Whitepunk [10]

After 200 years of a monarchy rule, the Romans rebelled against their king and created their own republic government. :) Hope that helps!

5 0
2 years ago
What effect did the printing press have on the number of books produced and their selling price?
Ivanshal [37]
More books were produced more rapidly because they no longer had to be copied by hand, which lowered the price and made them more accessible.
6 0
3 years ago
Help pls!
horrorfan [7]
I hope this help to be honest and U can just search it up online

6 0
2 years ago
Before Charley’s first battle, he writes a letter to his mother stating that he is a man (even though he’s still a boy). Why do
olasank [31]
Because he believed war made him more mature, like he thought men were. He probably thought boys wouldn’t have the courage to do what he was doing.
8 0
3 years ago
Women did not get the right to vote in Britain or in the United States until
Vikentia [17]

Answer:

Explanation:

Women did not get the right to vote in Britain before the year 1928 and in the United States until the year 1920. So women of the two countries had succeeded in their quest at separate times. The women of Britain got the same rights as men and that was women above the age of 21 years could vote.

4 0
2 years ago
Other questions:
  • Which American political party experienced a surge in membership because of growing labor unrest and high unemployment rates in
    8·1 answer
  • Which country was trying to reach the riches of China between the 1500s and 1700s?
    8·2 answers
  • What term is used for the division of political authority among branches of government? A. separation of powers B. executive pri
    13·1 answer
  • What reason was given for closing the ghettos?
    11·1 answer
  • A continuación tienes una bailarina y un basquetbolista por lo general las bailarinas usan tacones y el basquebolista zapatos de
    10·1 answer
  • Bir gun kurbağalar yarış yapıyormuş Hedef, yüksek bir kulenin tepesine
    11·1 answer
  • Expalin the British mandate on Palestine post WWI.<br><br>please help:(​
    6·1 answer
  • Which texan worked tirelessly to gain equal rights for woman
    5·1 answer
  • In order to resolve some of the debates surrounding the US Constitution, the Great Compromise called for which of the
    9·1 answer
  • 1. What was the official Nazi party name?
    12·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!