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zimovet [89]
4 years ago
7

When preparing a statement of cash flows using the indirect method, each of the following should be classified as an operating c

ash flow except:
Multiple Choice
A. An increase in prepaid expenses.
B. A decrease in accrued expenses payable.
C. Proceeds from the disposal of a long-term asset with no gain or loss.
D. An increase in accounts receivable
Business
1 answer:
pogonyaev4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

C. Proceeds from the disposal of a long-term asset with no gain or loss.

Explanation:

Operating activities: it involves those transactions that after net income written impact the working capital. It would subtract the rise in current assets and a reduction in current liabilities, while adding the decline in current assets and an increase in current liabilities.  

It would adjust the changes in working capital. In addition, the depreciation expense adds to the net revenue. And the loss on asset sales is added, while the gain on asset sales is deducted

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In the country of Economica, the total labor force consists of 15,000 workers. 750 of these workers are unemployed, and thus the
wel

Answer:

At the end of the year, the labor force will consist of 15,555 workers

The unemployment rate will be 7.71%

Explanation:

In order to calculate the labor force we would have to make the following calculation:

labor force=labour force - workers will lose their jobs +workers will return to the labor force - workers voluntary leave their jobs + new workers entered

labor force= 15,000 - 300 + 255 - 150 + 750

labor force=15,555

At the end of the year, the labor force will consist of 15,555 workers

In order to calculate the unemployment rate we would have to make the following calculation:

unemployment rate=Unemployed labour force/labor force

Unemployed labour force=new workers entered+workers will lose their jobs+workers voluntary leave their jobs

Unemployed labour force=750 + 300 + 150

Unemployed labour force=1,200

Therefore, unemployment rate=1,200/15,555

unemployment rate= 7.71%

The unemployment rate will be 7.71%

3 0
3 years ago
On December 31, a $1,500,000 bond issue on which there is an unamortized discount of $70,100 is redeemed for $1,455,000.
Novay_Z [31]

Answer:

Explanation:

The journal entry is shown below:

Bonds Payable A/c Dr. $1,500,000

Loss on Redemption of Bond A/c Dr. $25,100

             To Discount on Bonds Payable A/c $70,100

            To Cash A/c $1,455,000

(Being the redemption of the bond is recorded)

The loss on redemption of bond would be

= $1,455,000  + $70,100  - $1,500,000

= $25,100

 

7 0
3 years ago
You and the other shoe store owners decide to fix your shoe prices at $60 a pair in order to maximize your profits. This is call
igomit [66]
Is called collusion

It's actually price collusion to be precise ( not to be mistaken for the crime collusion)

Often time, to attract customers, sellers will offer a lower price than their competitor. Though it may attract more customer, it will lower their profit.

In price collusion, all sellers is guaranteed to have same product price and profit margin, creating a perfect competition market for that product
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Assume the following: (1) the interest rate on 6-month treasury bills is 8 percent per annum in the United Kingdom and 4 percent
jarptica [38.1K]

Answer:

d. Fall to $1.47

Explanation:

currently you will need $1,500 to purchase £1,000 and invest in British bonds. After 65 months you will have £1,040, which you should be able to convert into $1,544.40. If you invested in US bonds, you would have $1,530, so this arbitrage will yield $14.40.

But if instead the British pound fell to $1.47, then your profit would only be $28.80, less than if you invested in US bonds. You again would have £1,040 in 6 months, but that would only be equal to $1,528.80.

6 0
3 years ago
Mayan Company had net income of $32,500. The weighted-average common shares outstanding were 10,000. The company has no preferre
madreJ [45]

Answer:

The company's earnings per share is $3.25.

Explanation:

Earnings per share (EPS) refers to a financial metric that shows an indication of the amount of money that is made a company for each share of its stock.

The earnings per share of Mayan Company can be calculated using the formula for calculating earnings per share as follows:

Earnings per share = Net income /  Weighted-average common shares outstanding ..................... (1)

Where;

Net income = $32,500

Weighted-average common shares outstanding = 10,000

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

Earnings per share = $32,500 / 10,000

Earnings per share = $3.25

Therefore, the company's earnings per share is $3.25.

6 0
3 years ago
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