The theoretical probability of rolling a three would be 1/6.
1/6 expressed as a decimal would be 0.17.
Answer:
<h2>20</h2>
<em>Solution</em><em>,</em>
<em><</em><em>N=</em><em>1</em><em>8</em><em>0</em><em>-</em><em>5</em><em>3</em><em>-</em><em>4</em><em>4</em>
<em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em>=</em><em>8</em><em>3</em>
<h3>
<em>Apply </em><em>sines </em><em>rule,</em></h3>
<em>
</em>
<em>hope </em><em>this </em><em>helps.</em><em>.</em>
<em>Good </em><em>luck</em><em> on</em><em> your</em><em> assignment</em><em>.</em><em>.</em>
Answer:
This is not my answer, it was done by another expert in Brainly.
We are given:
csc (0) * sin (0)
This is to be simplified using trigonometric identities:
csc (x) = 1/sin(x)
so, csc (0) = 1/sin(0)
then,
1/sin(0) * sin (0), the result will be sin(0) / sin (0) which is equal to 1.
Therefore, the answer is 1.
Answer:
f(x)=x-2
Step-by-step explanation:
You just have to change 5a for x
Both Aliyah and Ivan are correct because both chose the correct scale factor for the dilation and both describe other transformations that would produce triangle <span>. </span>
