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Talja [164]
3 years ago
13

Is the ordered pair (1, 2) a solution to this system

Mathematics
1 answer:
Xelga [282]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

To determine is an ordered pair is a solution to the system of equations, substitute its coordinates into each of the equations.

An ordered pair is written in the form (x, y), so x=1 and y=2.

y = -2x +4

2 = -2(1) + 4      <=simplify this by multiplying (-2)(1)

2 = -2 + 4        <= add

2 = 2         <= same answers

LS = RS

7x - 2y = 3

7(1) - 2(2) = 3     <=simplify this but multiplying 7(1) and 2(2)

7 - 4 = 3           <= subtract

3 = 3          <= same answers

LS = RS

Since (1, 2) satisfies both of the equations, it is a soltuion to the system of equations.

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Answer:

a = 6.94

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6.94 x 102

Check your work:

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7 0
3 years ago
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Underage drinking, Part I: Data collected by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMSHA) suggests tha
dezoksy [38]

Answer:

a. <u>Yes, there are 10 independent trials, each with exactly two possible outcomes, and a constant probability associated with each possible outcome.</u>

b. <u>The probability is 0.2029 or 20.29%</u>

c. <u>The probability is 0.2029 or 20.29%</u>

d. <u>The probability is 0.1671 or 16.71%</u>

e. <u>The probability is 0.9975 or 99.75%</u>

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>a. Yes, there are 10 independent trials, each with exactly two possible outcomes, and a constant probability associated with each possible outcome.</u>

b. Let's use the binomial distribution table, this way:

Binomial distribution (n=10, p=0.697)

 f(x) F(x) 1 - F(x)

x Pr[X = x] Pr[X ≤ x]

0 0.0000 0.0000

1 0.0002 0.0002

2 0.0016 0.0017

3 0.0095 0.0112

4 0.0384 0.0496

5 0.1059 0.1555

6 <u>0.2029</u> 0.3584

7 0.2668 0.6252

8 0.2301 0.8553

9 0.1176 0.9729

10 0.0271 1.0000

<u>The probability is 0.2029 or 20.29%</u>

c. If 69.7% of 18-20 years old consumed alcoholic beverages in 2008, therefore, 30.3% did not and the binomial distribution table is:

Binomial distribution (n=10, p=0.303)

 f(x) F(x) 1 - F(x)

x Pr[X = x] Pr[X ≤ x]

0 0.0271 0.0271

1 0.1176 0.1447

2 0.2301 0.3748

3 0.2668 0.6416

4 <u>0.2029</u> 0.8445

5 0.1059 0.9504

6 0.0384 0.9888

7 0.0095 0.9983

8 0.0016 0.9998

9 0.0002 1.0000

10 0.0000 1.0000

<u>The probability is 0.2029 or 20.29%</u>

d. Let's use the binomial distribution table, this way:

Binomial distribution (n=5, p=0.697)

 f(x) F(x) 1 - F(x)

x Pr[X = x] Pr[X ≤ x]

0 0.0026 0.0026

1 0.0294 0.0319

2 0.1351 <u>0.1671 </u>

3 0.3109 0.4779

4 0.3576 0.8355

5 0.1645 1.0000

P(0) + P(1) + P (2) = 0.0026 + 0.0294 + 0.1351

<u>The probability is 0.1671 or 16.71%</u>

e. Using the same binomial distribution table we used in d. we have:

P(1) + P (2) + P(3) + P(4) + P (5) = 0.0294 + 0.1351 + 0.3109 + 0.3576 + 0.1645

<u>The probability is 0.9975 or 99.75%</u>

7 0
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ella [17]

Answer:

TRUE

Step-by-step explanation:

y-4 = 2(x-1)

here, 4 is representing the y value and 1 is representing the x value.

And the slope is 2.

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