Answer:
A valid will has to be in writing, and signed by the testator in the presence of two witnesses, who must also attest the will. If the process is not followed to the hilt, the will can be challenged in the court of law. So the answer is true.
Answer:
loan balance after 12 years = $185409.8
Explanation:
Loan principal = $200000
interest = 10% of principal
amount paid yearly = $21215.85
For 1st year
principal for the first year = $200000
required interest to be paid = 10% of 200000 = $20000
amount paid = $21215.85
Loan Balance after first year = (principal for first year) - (amount paid - 10% of principal ) = $198,784.15
For 2nd year
principal for the 2nd year = Loan balance after first year = $198,784.15
loan balance after 2nd year = 198784.15 - ( 21215.85 - 10% of 198784.15)
= $197568.30
same applies for the different years until the 12th year
using this formula :
Loan Balance after Nth year = [ Loan balance after (n-1) year - ( amount paid - 10% of loan balance after (n-1) year ) ]
Answer:
The explanation is given as follows.
Explanation:
<u>Task 1: </u>
<u>The higher the percentage of assets a bank holds as loans, the higher the capital requirement.</u>
When the owners of the bank borrow $100 to supplement their existing reserves , both reserves and debt increase by $100 , therefore increase in debt as in any balance sheet , the total value of accounts on the left hand should be equal to the right hand , so when there is increase in reserves , there will be increase in debt.
<u>Task 2:</u>
<u>It specifies a minimum leverage ratio for all banks
</u>
leverage ratio initially = total assets / capital = 1750 / 125 = 14
leverage ratio new value = total assets / capital = 1850 / 125 = 14.8 ( the assets increase by $100 with increase in reserves)
<u>Task 3</u>
<u>Its intended goal is to protect the interests of those who hold equity in the bank.</u>
Capital requirement are there to ensure that bank have enough capital to repay the depositors and debtors and if a bank holds a higher percent of risky assets , capital requirements will be higher so that the bank remains solvent hence option a is right answer.
Answer:
Yield management pricing
Explanation:
Yield management pricing is the charging of different prices for a given set of capacity at a specific time in order to maximize revenue. This is based on the demand and supply in the market and is very common in industries such as airlines, hotels and resorts. When there is very high demand for airline seats, prices for them are high. However, if some of those passengers decided to refund their tickets, close to departure and the flight would be taking off soon, instead of flying with empty seats and no revenue from them, the airline would decide to sell these same seats at a cheaper rate in order to gain some revenue. This is a form of revenue maximization.
