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andreyandreev [35.5K]
4 years ago
6

WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST

Mathematics
2 answers:
valina [46]4 years ago
7 0
1000. You need to divide 1500 by 30 to get 50. Then you multiply that by 20. Please mark as brainliest!
Alex_Xolod [135]4 years ago
7 0

1500x30=50

50x20= 1000

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Step-by-step explanation:

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According to a study done by Wakefield Research, the proportion of Americans who can order a meal in a foreign language is 0.47.
UNO [17]

Answer:

Probability that the proportion of Americans who can order a meal in a foreign language is greater than 0.5 is 0.19766.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that according to a study done by Wake field Research, the proportion of Americans who can order a meal in a foreign language is 0.47.

Suppose a random sample of 200 Americans is asked to disclose whether they can order a meal in a foreign language.

<em>Let </em>\hat p<em> = sample proportion of Americans who can order a meal in a foreign language</em>

The z-score probability distribution for sample proportion is given by;

          Z = \frac{ \hat p-p}{\sqrt{\frac{\hat p(1-\hat p)}{n} } }  ~ N(0,1)

where, \hat p = sample proportion

p = population proportion of Americans who can order a meal in a foreign language = 0.47

n = sample of Americans = 200

Probability that the proportion of Americans who can order a meal in a foreign language is greater than 0.5 is given by = P( \hat p > 0.50)

  P( \hat p > 0.06) = P( \frac{ \hat p-p}{\sqrt{\frac{\hat p(1-\hat p)}{n} } } > \frac{0.5-0.47}{\sqrt{\frac{0.5(1-0.5)}{200} } } ) = P(Z > 0.85) = 1 - P(Z \leq 0.85)

                                                               = 1 - 0.80234 = <u>0.19766</u>

<em>Now, in the z table the P(Z  </em>\leq <em>x) or P(Z < x) is given. So, the above probability is calculated by looking at the value of x = 0.85 in the z table which has an area of 0.80234.</em>

Therefore, probability that the proportion of Americans who can order a meal in a foreign language is greater than 0.5 is 0.19766.

4 0
4 years ago
The scale on a map is 3 inches : 4 miles. How far apart are two cities that are 9 inches apart on the map?
harkovskaia [24]

Answer:

Distance between two cities that are 9 inches apart on the map is 11.97 miles (12 miles)

Step-by-step explanation:

As it is given in the question scaled distance on a map is 3 inches = 4 miles.

Now we have to calculate how many miles in 1 inches on the map = 4÷3

                                                                                      = 1.33miles

Now we get the value of 1 inches on the map = 1.33 miles

9 inches = 1.33 × 9 = 11.97 miles ( Probably close to 12 miles if allowing for changing elevations in the distance)

In elementary school we used to refer to this as a ratio problem; two equal ratios with one containing unknown as :

X/C = A/B

X miles / 9 inches = 4 miles / 3 inches

X = 9 (4÷3)

X = 9×1.33

X = 11.97

=12 miles

8 0
3 years ago
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