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ExtremeBDS [4]
4 years ago
11

Please help me! I would really appreciate it

Mathematics
1 answer:
ozzi4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the rule of exponents

(a^nb^n)^{m} = a^{(mn)}b^{(mn)}, hence

(a^{\frac{1}{2} }b^{\frac{1}{3} })^(\frac{1}{2})

= a^{\frac{1}{2}(\frac{1}{2} ) } × b^{\frac{1}{3}(\frac{1}{2})  }

= a^{\frac{1}{4} } b^{\frac{1}{6} } → D

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