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Leona [35]
3 years ago
9

Roger can run one mile in 18 minutes. jeff can run one mile in 15 minutes. if jeff gives roger a 1 minute head start, how long w

ill it take before jeff catches up to roger?
Mathematics
1 answer:
gladu [14]3 years ago
4 0

Alright, lets get started.

Roger can run one mile in 18 minutes.

Jeff can run one mile in 15 minutes.

Suppose in x minutes, they both will catch up.

Roger runs in 18 minutes = 1 mile

So, Roger will run in 1 minute = \frac{1}{18} miles

So, Roger will run in x minutes = \frac{x}{18} miles

Jeff runs in 15 minues = 1 mile

So, Jeff will run in 1 minute = \frac{1}{15} mile

As Jeff gives roger a 1 minute head start, means Jeff will have x-1 minute time to run

So, Jeff will run in (x-1) minute = \frac{x-1}{15}

As both are cathing up means they both runs same distance, means

\frac{x}{18} =\frac{x-1}{15}

Cross Multiplying

15 x = 18x - 18

3 x = 18

x = 6 minutes

So for calculating distance = speed * time

Distance = \frac{1}{18} *6 = \frac{1}{3} miles

It means it will take 1/3 or 0.33 miles before jeff catches up to roger.   :   Answer

Hope it will help :)



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Question 2(Multiple Choice Worth 1 points)<br> (01.04 LC)<br><br> Solve for x: −2x − 4 &gt; 8
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The required solution of the inequality is x  < - 6.


Given that,
To solve the equation −2x − 4 > 8.

<h3>What is inequality?</h3>

Inequality can be described as the consideration of the equation including the symbol of ( ≤, ≥, <, >) instead of the equal sign in an equation.


Here,
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when multiplying the negative -1 it will change the behavior of the inequality, so.
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brainly.com/question/14098842

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The answer is 1/2 time
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Read 2 more answers
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