Answer:
11 people will get both the prizes.
Step-by-step explanation:
In this question we need to find common integral multiples of 5 and 7 under 400. As you can see in the figure 35th person is the first one to get both ipod and psp. The LCM (least common multiple) of 5 and 7 which is 35 (!!! <em>I hope you know how to LCM of two integers </em>).
Therefore the integral multiples of 35 will be same as the common multiples of 5 and 7. So, figuring out the number of integral multiples of 35 under 400 will give the answer.
To do that divide the number 400 with 35. On performing the division the quotient will be 11 and the remainder will be 15.
Therefore 11 persons out of 400 will get both the prizes.
Similarly if you want to find the number of person getting ipod then divide 400 with 5. The quotient will be 80. ∴ 80 people will get ipod.
And for psp, divide 400 with 7. The quotient will be 57. ∴ 57 people will get psp.
In these divisions, consider just the quotient, here remainder is of no use.
1) This is a combination, so use ⁴⁰C₂.
⁴⁰C₂ = 780
There are 780 handshakes in total.
2) I got my solution by using the combinations formula. Or another way you could do this is to add up... 39 + 38 + 37 + 36 + 35 + 34 + 33 + 32 + 31... +1. You will end up with 780 (I did this to double check my work).
3) The quickest way to figure this out if Drake invited 1,000 people is to use the natural numbers formula = n(n+ 1)/2.
Plug the numbers in: 999(1000)/2 = 499,500
If Drake invited 1,000 people, there would be 499,500 handshakes.
Answer:
The monthly percentage rate would be 1.6%
Step-by-step explanation:
Given,
Finance charge = $ 85.50,
Amount of bill in this month = $ 5,343.75,
Hence, the monthly rate of percentage




= 1.6 %
i.e. OPTION A would be correct.
Answer:
x=2, y=1
Step-by-step explanation:
4x+8y=16
4x-8y=0
Add the two equations together:
8x=16
Divide both sides by 8:
x=2
Plug this back into one of the original equations to find y:
4(2)-8y=0
8-8y=0
y=1
Hope this helps!

Notice that

So as

you have

. Clearly

must converge.
The second sequence requires a bit more work.

The monotone convergence theorem will help here; if we can show that the sequence is monotonic and bounded, then

will converge.
Monotonicity is often easier to establish IMO. You can do so by induction. When

, you have

Assume

, i.e. that

. Then for

, you have

which suggests that for all

, you have

, so the sequence is increasing monotonically.
Next, based on the fact that both

and

, a reasonable guess for an upper bound may be 2. Let's convince ourselves that this is the case first by example, then by proof.
We have


and so on. We're getting an inkling that the explicit closed form for the sequence may be

, but that's not what's asked for here. At any rate, it appears reasonable that the exponent will steadily approach 1. Let's prove this.
Clearly,

. Let's assume this is the case for

, i.e. that

. Now for

, we have

and so by induction, it follows that

for all

.
Therefore the second sequence must also converge (to 2).