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Readme [11.4K]
3 years ago
5

What's the answer? (please help soon!)

Mathematics
1 answer:
nignag [31]3 years ago
3 0
Absolute value make it positive

15-|-5|=15-5=10

|-4|+6=4+6=10

-|7+3|=-|10|=-(10)=-10

|-10|=10

so it is -|7+3| that doesn't belong
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Step-by-step explanation:

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Use an inequality to describe the interval of real numbers <br><br>(-3,8]
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38 i think it means infinite
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The equation of line fis - 3y + 4x = 9 write the equation of a line that is parallel to line and passes through the point (- 12,
ollegr [7]

Answer:

y =  - 4x - 42

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of the line that is parallel to the line we are trying to find is

- 3y + 4x = 9 \\ or \\  - 3y =  - 4x + 9 \:(standard form) \\ \\therefore \: the \: slope \: of \: the \: line \\  \: is \:  - 4

We can recall that when two lines are parallel it means that they have the same slope. Therefore the slope of the line we are trying to find is also -4. We now know that:

y = 6 \:  \:  \: x =  - 12 \:  \:  \: slope =  - 4

Therefore the equation of the line is:

y = mx + c \\  6= ( - 4)( - 12) + c \\ 6 = 48 + c \\ 6 - 48 = c \\  - 42 = c

y = mx + c \\ y =  - 4x - 42

3 0
2 years ago
Write the trigonometric expression sin(sin−1u−tan−1v) as an algebraic expression in u and v. Assume that the variables u and v r
igomit [66]

Answer:

[u – v√(1 – u²)]/√(1 + v²)

Step-by-step explanation:

Let sin^-1(u) = A, therefore sinA = u.

We know that sin(theta) = opposite/hypothenuse

Therefore, sinA = u/1 and u is the opposite side to angle A while 1 is the hypotenuse. Draw an acute triangle placing u opposite to angle A and 1 as the hypotenuse. By Pythagoras theorem the adjacent would be √(1 – u²).

By doing this, it means cosA = adjacent/hypotenuse = √(1 – u²)/1 = √(1 – u²)

Also, let tan^-1(v) = B, therefore tanB = v.

We know that tan(theta) = opposite/adjacent

Therefore, tanB = v/1 and v is the opposite side to angle B while 1 is the adjacent. Draw an acute triangle placing v opposite to angle B and 1 as the adjacent. By Pythagoras theorem the hypothenuse would be √(1 + v²).

Therefore, sinB = opposite/hypotenuse = v/√(1 + v²) and cosB = adjacent/hypotenuse = 1/√(1 + v²)

Now,

sin[sin^–1(u) – tan^–1(v)] =

sin(A – B) =

sinAcosB – sinBcosA =

u[1/√(1 + v²)] – [v/√(1 + v²)][√(1 – u²)] =

[u/√(1 + v²)] – [v√(1 – u²)/√1 + v²)] =

[u – v√(1 – u²)]/√(1 + v²).

8 0
3 years ago
GOOD Connect It Now look at different ways to solve the problem. 2) Write 1,000,000,000 as a product of 10s.
Nostrana [21]

Answer:

1 x 10^9

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
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