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jonny [76]
3 years ago
6

To take advantage of an arbitrage opportunity, an investor would 1) construct a zero-investment portfolio that will yield a sure

profit. II) construct a zero-beta-investment portfolio that will yield a sure profit. III) make simultaneous trades in two markets without any net investment. IV) short sell the asset in the low-priced market and buy it in the high-priced market.
Select one:
a. I and IV
b. I and III
c. II, III and IV
d . I, III, and IV
e . Il and III
Business
1 answer:
Alex_Xolod [135]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Both statements I and III are correct.

Explanation:

<u>1.Construct a zero investment portfolio that will yield a sure profit </u>

<u> </u>

<u>3.Make simultaneous trades in two markets without any net investments</u>

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If your risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4.4 and you believe that the entire 1926–2015 period is representative of future expect
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=> fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 0.4482 = 44.82%.

=> fraction to equity = 0.5518 = 55.18%.

Explanation:

So, in this question or problem we are given the following parameters or data or information which are; that the utility function is U = E(r) – 0.5 × Aσ2 and the risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4.4.

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