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11111nata11111 [884]
3 years ago
14

The following information is available for Patrick Products for the year: Budgeted sales during the year 5,000 units Actual sale

s during the year 4,500 units Budgeted machine hours required for the year 10,000 hours Actual machine-hours during the year 9,000 hours Budgeted variable overhead costs $2,500,000 Actual variable overhead costs $2,375,000 What is the variable overhead flexible-budget variance for the year?
Business
2 answers:
cupoosta [38]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

$125,000 Adverse variance as the cost actually incurred is higher.

Explanation:

The first step here is to find the Flexed Variable Overhead Cost by using the unitary method:

Budgeted overhead cost for 10,000 budgeted hrs = $2500,000

Budgeted overhead cost for 1 budgeted hrs = $2500,000 / 10000 bud. hrs

Budgeted overhead cost for 1 budgeted hrs = $250 per standard hr

And as we know that

Flexed Variable Overhead Budget = Actual Units * Budgeted overhead cost for standard hr

By simply putting values we have:

Flexed Variable Overhead Budget = 9000 hours * $250 per standard hr

= $2,2500,000

Now we will find the Flexible-budget Variable Overhead Variance by taking the difference of Variable overhead flexible budget and Actual Variable Overhead.

Flexible-budget Variable Overhead Variance = Variable overhead flexible budget - Actual Variable Overhead

By putting the values we have:

Flexible-budget Variable Overhead Variance = $2,2500,000 - $2,375,000

= $125,000 Adverse variance as the cost actually incurred is higher.

lyudmila [28]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

variable overhead flexible-budget variance for the year is $125,000

Explanation:

What we need to do is to get the flexed Variable Overhead Cost and we can get this by the method of unitary;

The value of the is budgeted overhead cost for 10,000 budgeted hrs = $2500,000

And also

The value of the budgeted overhead cost for 1 budgeted hrs = $2500,000 ÷ 10000 hrs

The value of the budgeted overhead cost for 1 budgeted hours = $250 per standard hour

To get value of flexed Variable Overhead Budget = Actual Units × Budgeted overhead cost for standard hour

Let's substitute the values

= 9000 × 250

= $2,2500,000

Flexible-budget Variable Overhead Variance is gotten by subtracting the Variable overhead flexible budget and Actual Variable Overhead which we have as;

Flexible-budget Variable Overhead Variance = Variable overhead flexible budget - Actual Variable Overhead

= $2,2500,000 - $2,375,000

= $125,000

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The Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act (Landrum-Griffin Act) was designed to protect the rights of individual union m
Artist 52 [7]

Answer:

The correct answer is the first option: True.

Explanation:

To begin with, the "Labor Management Reporting Disclosure Act", or also known as Landrum-Griffin Act, was the name given to a law from the United States that basically has its main purpose in the protection of rights from the individual members of the Unions. This law focus particulary in the relationship that exists between the Union as an organization of power and the members inside due to a matter of internal affairs in the search of reducing abuse of power and position as well. That is why that this law seeks for the benefits of the individuals parties in the wake of the increase of their rights.

5 0
3 years ago
On November 1, 2018, ABC signed a $100,000, 6%, six-month note payable with the amount borrowed plus accrued interest due six mo
Kryger [21]

Answer:

ABC

In recording the payment of the note plus accrued interest at maturity on May 1, 2019, ABC would: __________

Journal Entries:

May 1, 2019:

Debit Interest Payable $1,000

Debit Interest Expense $2,000

Debit Notes Payable $100,000

Credit Cash $103,000

To record the payment of the note plus accrued interest at maturity.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

November 1, 2018:

6% 6-month Note Payable = $100,000

December 31, 2018:

Accrued interest = $1,000 ($100,000 * 6% * 2/12) for 2 months

May 1, 2019:

Interest Expense = $2,000 ($100,000 * 6% * 4/12) for 4 months

Transaction Analysis on May 1, 2019:

Interest Payable $1,000 Interest Expense $2,000 6% Notes Payable $100,000 Cash $103,000

6 0
2 years ago
The following account appears in the ledger prior to recognizing the jobs completed in January: Work in ProcessBalance, January
exis [7]

Answer:

Year-end WIP 62,200

jounral entry for completed jobs:

-------------------------------------

Finished Good Inventory   1,149,800 DEBIT

  WIP inventory                              1,149,800 CREDIT

-------------------------------------

Explanation:

<u>WIP </u>

Beginning  $     72,000

Materials    $   390,000

Labor          $   500,000

Overhead   <u>$   250,000</u>

Total WIP    $  1,212,000

<u />

<u>Finished Jobs:</u>

Job 210  $  200,000

Job 224 $  225,000

Job 216  $  288,000

Job 230 <u>$  436,800</u>

Total       $ 1,149,800

the jobs complete will move to finished good and credit WIP inventory

WIP year-end:

1,212,000 - 1,149,800 = 62,200

7 0
3 years ago
You observe the following term structure: Effective Annual YTM 1-year zero-coupon bond 5.2 % 2-year zero-coupon bond 5.3 3-year
Lisa [10]

Answer:

Explanation:

a. If you believe that the term structure next year will be the same as today’s, calculate the return on (i) the 1-year zero and (ii) the 4-year zero.

b. Which bond provides a greater expected 1-year return? O 1-year zero-coupon bond O 4-year zero-coupon bond

The return on one year bond is = 5.2%

The price of 4 year bond today

=\frac{ 1000}{ (1.055)^4}

Price of 4 year bond today = 807.22

If yield curves is unchanged, the bond will have 3-year maturity and price will be

=\frac{  1000}{(1.054)^3}

If yield curves is unchanged, the bond will have 3-year maturity and price will be = 854.04

Return

=\frac{ (854.04 - 807.22)}{807.22}

Return = 5.8%

The longer term bond has given the higher return in this case at it's YTM fell during the holding period(4 -year)

8 0
2 years ago
A company acquired an office building on three acres of land for a lump-sum price of $2,450,000. The building was completely equ
galina1969 [7]

Answer:

$735,000

Explanation:

The fair values of the assets may be used as a basis for determining the amount to be recorded for each of the assets.

This will be in a proportional manner such that the higher the fair value, the higher the actual cost assigned and vice versa to the asset.

Hence the amount to be recorded for the building

= 840,000 / (840,000 + 840,000 + 1,120,000) * $2,450,000

= $735,000

7 0
2 years ago
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