Answer:
Option C
Explanation:
C. There is a high degree of social consensus
It takes ur money out and away
<u>The only relevant difference between the </u><u>curves </u><u>for a </u><u>monopoly</u><u> and the equivalent ones for a firm in a competitive market is that </u><u>marginal</u><u> and </u><u>average revenue slope</u><u> downward for the </u><u>monopolist.</u>
What type of curve does a monopoly have?
- A monopoly encounters a downward-sloping market demand curve in Panel (b).
- It chooses its profit-maximizing output in its capacity as a profit maximizer.
- However, after determining that quantity, it uses the demand curve to determine the price at which it can sell that output.
What is a difference between a monopoly and perfect competition ?
While in monopolistic competition, businesses produce slightly different goods, in perfect competition, businesses produce identical goods.
How does a demand curve for a monopoly differ from a demand curve for a perfectly competitive firm?
Because the monopolist is the sole company operating in the market, its demand curve is identical to the market demand curve, which is downward-sloping as opposed to the demand curve for a perfectly competitive firm.
Learn more about monopoly
brainly.com/question/5992626
#SPJ4
Answer:
b. Hilton should purchase the resort, but Marriott should not.
Explanation:
given data
Resort sale = $400 million
free cash flow = $45 million
time = 20 year
return = 8%
risk-free rate = 2%
Hilton beta =1.1
Marriott beta = 1.3
solution
we get here first NPV of the resort when the cost of capital is
Re = risk-free rate + beta( Rm - Rf) ........................1
Re = 2 + 1.1 ( 8 - 2 )
Re = 8.6%
and
The NPV will be as
cash flow to free cash flow is = 45 million
so NPV is $22.767
and
as that at cost of capital of 9.8%,
The NPV will be
NPV = $11.6011
so we can say that Hilton should pursue the project due to the positive NPV
but due to the negative NPV here Marriott should not pursue the project.
I would say that this note would still be valid despite no date on it since it states that it will be paid after the sale of his automobile and in the absence of a date, I believe it could be considered be paid up to 6 months after the sale of the automobile since that sale will have a date or needs to be ensured that such a date is now recorded. While a full signature is preferable, I believe the initial will suffice since some legal documents say at financial institutions only require an initial and in any case the person who initialled it can be contacted to provide his full signature and confirmation that the 6 months after the sale of the automobile can be used.