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2 years ago

10

alex purchased 20,000 for a new car. The cars value depreciates 7.25% each year. What will be the value of the car five years af

ter it is purchased

1 answer:

Ugo [173]2 years ago

8 0

The answer would be 18550$. you would find 7.25% of 20000, multiply it by 5, then subtract it from 20000 to get 18550$.

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Pleases complete the proof but with each step can you tell me which property of equality to use.

wel

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0

1 year ago

How to solve: a parade traveled 4 miles in 2 hours. how far did tge parade travel per minute?

jek_recluse [69]

There's a really easy way to convert any units to other units.

Right now, we have the fraction (4 miles) / (2 hours).

We want to find a fraction that's exactly equal to that one,
but has the units of (miles/minute) or maybe (feet/minute).

Just take the original fraction, and multiply it by some other
fractions.

Each fraction you multiply it by must have the value of ' 1 ' so
you don't change the value of the original fraction. But it can
have different units, that cancel with other units to eventually
give you the units you want.

(4 miles / 2 hours) times (1 hour / 60 minutes)

The second fraction is equal to ' 1 ', because the top and the bottom
have the same value ... 1 hour is the same thing as 60 minutes.

Multiply the fractions: (4 miles x 1 hour) / (2 hour x 60 minutes)

Now you can cancel 'hour' from the top and the bottom, and you have

   (4 miles x 1) / (2 x 60 minutes)

   = (4 miles) / (120 minutes)

   = (4 / 120) mile/minute = 0.0333... mile / minute .

Let's do it again, go a little farther, and get an answer that
might mean more and feel more like an answer.

   (4 miles) / (2 hours) x (5280 feet / mile) x (1 hour / 60 minutes)

The 2nd and 3rd fractions both have the value of ' 1 ', because
the top is equal to the bottom.

Multiply all three fractions:

   (4 miles x 5280 feet x 1 hour) / (2 hours x 1 mile x 60 minutes)

You can cancel both 'mile' and 'hour' out of the top and bottom,
and look what you have left:

   (4 x 5280 feet x 1) / (2 x 1 x 60 minutes)

= (4 x 5280) / (2 x 60) feet / minutes

= (21,120 / 120) feet/minute =    176 feet per minute

3 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

I'm lowkey bout to have a heart attack if I don't get a tutor :(

allochka39001 [22]

Answer:

5(2x + 6) = -4(-5 -2x) + 3x

10x + 30 = 20 + 8x + 3x

10x + 30 = 20 + 11x

Applying the additive inverse property, we get,

10x + 30 - 10x - 20 = 20 + 11x - 10x - 20

10 = x

4 0

2 years ago

Catherine saved some money and plans to add the same amount each week to her savings account. The table represents the number of

yan [13]

Answer: y=6x+50 B

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

2 years ago

En una fiesta hay 40 asistentes de los cuales el número de varones que no bailan es el doble que el número de las mujeres que no

Arte-miy333 [17]

Answer:

50%

Step-by-step explanation:

Para resolver este problema vamos a definir 4 variables:

V= número de varones bailando.

M= número de mujeres bailando.

V' = número de varones que no están bailando.

M' = número de mujeres que no están bailando.

Sabemos que hay 40 personas en la fiesta, por lo que podemos construir la siguiente ecuación:

V+M+V'+M'=40

Vamos a suponer que cada mujer que está bailando, está bailando varón respectivamente. (El problema no da más información, entonces podemos suponer esto.)

Entonces si hay 5 mujeres bailando, entonces también hay 5 hombres bailando, por lo que nuestra ecuación se reescribe de la siguiente manera:

5+5+V'+M'=40

y simplificamos:

10+V'+M'=40

V'+M'=40-10

V'+M'=30

Ahora bien, el problem nos dice que el número de varones que no bailan es el doble del número de mujeres que no bailan en un determinado momento. Entonces con esta información podemos construir la siguiente ecuación:

V'=2M'

Y podemos despejar el número de mujeres que no bailan, lo que nos da:

$M'=\frac{V'}{2}$

Entonces podemos sustituir esto dentro de nuestra ecuación para obtener:

$\frac{V'}{2}+V'=30$

y podemos entonces despejar V'

$\frac{3V'}{2}=30$

$V'=\frac{2(30)}{3}$

V'=20

Entonces hay 20 varones que no están bailando, por lo que la probabilidad de que el varón que se escoge al azar no esté bailando está dada por la siguiente fórmula:

$P=\frac{V'}{total}$

$P=\frac{20}{40}=\frac{1}{2}$

P=50%

6 0

2 years ago