Answer:
a. Single
b. Compounding
Explanation:
Lump sums refers to a single payment that is made to a person or an organisation at a specified time. This is different from installment payment that is made as a number of smaller payments over a specified period of time.
Compounding refers to a method of reinvesting earnings or profits from assets or investment with aim of generating extra earnings over time.
Compounding is the foundation of Future Value (FV) as it considers the present value (PV) of an asset, the total number of years, how frequent the compounding takes place in a year, and the annual interest rate as given in the formula in the question which represented as follows:
FV = PV(1 + I)^N
Where;
FV = Future Value
PV = Present Value
I = annual interest rate
N = number of years
Therefore, single payments are known as lump sums. We can solve for the future value or the present value of a lump sum as we discuss below.
Finding the future value (FV), or compounding, is the process of going from today's values to future amounts.
Answer:
Option C
Number of shares outstanding after split = 150,000 units
Explanation:
<em>A stock split occurs where a company creates additional shares in units such the total nominal value of the outstanding shares remains the same. With a stock split, the total outstanding shares increases without a change in the total nominal value while the nominal value per share reduces.</em>
Total shares before the split = 50,000
Total outstanding shares after split
= 50,000 × 3 = 150,000
Number of shares outstanding after split = 150,000 units
Answer: yes
Explanation:this is so because When a union wants to unionize a new group of employees, it must first convince at least 30% of the employees to sign authorization cards. If the union successfully does so, the union then submits the cards to the NLRB for certification. If the NLRB certifies that the union has secured cards from 30% of the employees, it orders that a secret ballot election be held where the employees vote on whether to unionize. Typically, about two months pass between the time the NLRB certifies the cards and the time that the election actually takes place. During these two months, the union and the employer actively campaign for or against unionization. At the election, if a majority of employees vote to unionize, then the NLRB recognizes the union as the sole bargaining representative of the employees. The employer is then required by statute to bargain in good faith with the union to negotiate the “first contract” between the employees and the employer. This employment contract determines the terms and conditions for all employees represented by the union.
This is what i found Answer 1
Risk-Adjusted Asset Base
The calculation of the risk-adjusted asset base for a bank is as below-
Risk-adjusted asset = (Cash × 0%) + (municipal security × 20%) + (home mortgages × 50%) + (Commercial loans × 100%)
= (20 × 0%) + (100 × 20%) + (500 × 50%) + (300$ × 100%)
= 0 + 20 + 250 + 300
= $570 million
The outcome shows that the risk-adjusted or weighted asset based for the bank will be $570 million.
Tier1 and Tier 2 Capital:
If the bank has no off-balance sheet activity then minimum required level of Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital will be-
Tier 1 capital = Risk-weighted asset × 4%
= $570 × 4%
= $22.8 million
Tier 2 capital = Maximum of 1.25% of risk-weighted asset
= $570 × 1.25%
= $7.125 million
Total capital = $22.8 + $7.125 => $29.925 million
The outcomes indicate that the minimum required level of Tier1 and Tier
2 capital is $22.8 million and $7.125 million for the bank.
Bank Comply with Capital Requirements:
If the bank has Tier 1 capital of $25 million and Tier 2 capital of $15
million then it will comply with its capital requirements of $29.925
million. It is because in this situation, total capital of bank is $37
million that is higher than the above calculated capital of $29.925
million.
Impact of off-Balance Sheet Activities on Capital Requirements
The addition of off-balance sheet activities might increase the capital
requirement of the bank. It is because an off-balance sheet items is a
financial contract that can create credit loss for the company due to
credit risk. So, in case of adding off-balance sheet activities, a bank
will require more capital to cover credit loss. Along with this, it can
also increase the minimum ratio of capital to risk-weighted assets from
8% and in that situation; the bank will need more capital (Carmichael
& Graham, 2012).
Answer 2
Probability of Repayment and Risk Premium
A).
If the rate on a one-year treasury bill is 6% and in case of loan
default, no payments are expected on financial securities then the
probability of repayment and the risk premium on 1 year AA-rated loan
yielding 9 percent will be-
Probability of Repayment:
The following formula can be useful to determine probability of repayment.
P = (1 + I) / (1 + k)
Where,
I = 6%
k = 9%
Then, ...you have $2.19 left :D
I don’t even know to be honest only commenting to get some points ....:
