1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
fiasKO [112]
3 years ago
5

Lisa is choosing between three alternatives:

Business
2 answers:
Y_Kistochka [10]3 years ago
7 0

Opportunity cost is something you gave up to do the other thing you want to do. This is basically the loss of potential gain you can have on a certain alternative because of choosing the other alternative. In this problem, the opportunity cost of writing the term paper is $140 dollars. This can be break-down as follows: 

a. $60 opportunity cost<span> she has given up for not</span> working<span> on her job</span> 

<span>b. $80 opportunity cost she has given up for not going out with a friend</span>

Tema [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The correct answer is:  $100 (dollars).

Explanation:

Opportunity cost is what a person sacrifices when they choose one option over others. It represents the difference between the choice that was taken and the options that were left on the table. Its formula is:

Opportunity Cost = FO - CO

<em />

  • <em>FO =</em><em> Return on best foregone option</em>
  • <em>CO = </em><em>Return on chosen option</em>

In the case, if Lisa chooses to write the term paper:

  • FO = <em>Working on her job + Going out with a friend</em>
  • FO = <em>$60 + $ 80</em>
  • FO = <em>$140</em>

  • CO = <em>Writing the term paper</em>
  • CO = <em>$40</em>

  • Opportunity cost = <em>FO - CO</em>
  • Opportunity cost = <em>$140 - $40</em>
  • Opportunity cost = <em>$100</em>

So, the opportunity cost of writing the term paper is $100.

You might be interested in
Emco Company uses direct labor cost as a basis for computing its predetermined overhead rate. In computing the predetermined ove
Andru [333]

Answer:

B. overstate the predetermined overhead rate.

Explanation:

As we know

The Predetermined overhead rate would be equal to

Predetermined overhead rate = (Total estimated manufacturing overhead) ÷ (estimated direct labor-hours or machine hours)

In the given question, the direct labor cost is used for computing the predetermined overhead rate which is already wrong.

To find out the predetermined overhead rate, we always use the indirect cost instead of direct cost

This error could overstate the predetermined overhead rate as it would increase the indirect labor due to which overhead is also increased. So, automatically the rate would also be increased.

8 0
3 years ago
The general ledger of Sandhill Corporation as of December 31, 2021, includes the following accounts: Copyrights $ 58000 Deposits
Dafna1 [17]

Answer:

$687,000

Explanation:

Intangible Assets are identifiable assets of a non-monetary asset  and without physical substance. Intangible assets include trademarks, copyrights and goodwill that is acquired.

Important to note that Internally generated Goodwill  is not defined as an assets. Thus, deposits with advertising agency of $35,000 are not included within tangible assets

<u>Calculation of Total Intangible Assets will be :</u>

Intangible Assets Calculation = (Copyrights) $ 58,000  + (Goodwill Acquired) $560,000 + (Trademarks) $69,000

                                                 = $687,000

Therefore,

Sandhill's balance sheet as of December 31, 2021 should report total intangible assets of $687,000

5 0
3 years ago
Mill Co.’s allowance for credit losses was $100,000 at the end of Year 2 and $90,000 at the end of Year 1. For the year ended De
MatroZZZ [7]

Answer:

The amount worth $6,000 will be debited to the account in Year 2

Explanation:

When the uncollectible accounts are written off, then the debit is created to the allowance and the credit to the accounts receivable. The starting balance in the allowance account is $90,000 and the ending balance is $100,000 and the expense of bad debt is $16,000

The write off is computed as:

Write off = Beginning balance + Bad debt expense - Ending balance

= $90,000 + $16,000 - $100,000

= $106,000 - $100,000

= $6,000

Therefore, the amount of $6,000 is to be write off in Year 2

7 0
3 years ago
Differentiate between accounting and bookkeeping
UkoKoshka [18]
Accounting adds and subtracts numbers billing etc.
Bookkeeping just organizes and stores imformation.
5 0
3 years ago
In the context of the BCG matrix, which of the following businesses would be classified as a dog? a. Bigs Steel, a metal manufac
pickupchik [31]

Answer:

<em>A. Big steel, a metal manufacturer that has negligible market share in a slow-growing industry</em>

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Can someone tell me the correct answer? Plz...I’ll give points.
    15·1 answer
  • The statement of owner’s equity contains the
    11·2 answers
  • Universal Containers (UC) wants Lightning Experience enabled employees who have Salesforce user licences to access a Community.
    11·1 answer
  • Suppose that Paolo, an economist from an AM talk radio program, and Sharon, an economist from a public television program, are a
    6·1 answer
  • FordTech is a software company whose clients are based in France. The company has formed a team to decide the direction the orga
    15·1 answer
  • Beatrice invests $1,320 in an account that pays 4 percent simple interest. How much more could she have earned over a 5-year per
    10·1 answer
  • Shamrock Shades operates in mall kiosks throughout the southwestern U.S. Shamrock purchases sunglasses from bulk discounters and
    13·1 answer
  • The advantages of personal financial planning include:
    11·1 answer
  • PLEASE HELP NOW
    12·1 answer
  • If a management team wishes to undertake efforts specifically aimed at helping the company meet or beat the investor-expected in
    6·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!