9514 1404 393
Answer:
12,00,000 rupees
Step-by-step explanation:
The fraction originally intended for each son was ...
(1/3)(1 -2/5) = 1/3(3/5) = 1/5
The fraction each son actually received was ...
(1 -1/6)(1/5) = (5/6)(1/5) = 1/6
The difference in these amounts as a fraction of the original distribution is ...
1/5 - 1/6 = (6/30) -(5/30) = 1/30
Then the original distribution is 30 times this difference:
30×40000 rupees = 12,00,000 rupees
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<em>Additional comment</em>
Originally-intended distribution (rupees):
- wife: 4,80,000
- each son: 2,40,000
Actual distribution:
- brother: 2,00,000
- wife: 4,00,000
- each son: 2,00,000
1,00,000 = 1 lakh
Answer:
<u>Answer</u><u>:</u><u> </u><u>A</u><u>.</u><u> </u><u>(</u><u>6</u><u>,</u><u> </u><u>4</u><u>)</u>
Equation of the line:

when x is 6:

Yes between those answers the answer of S will be S let me tell you why, when you carry over the s of subtracting s the answer of s is s so it may also possibly be s^48
Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:
To start, you need to find the equation of both of these lines. For the orange one, the slope can be found with the points (-5,0) and (0,-4), where there is a drop of 4 for a run of 5. This is a slope of -4/5, and a y-intercept of -4. For the purple line, you can use the points (-2,0) and (0,1), where there is a rise of 1 for a run of 2 or a slope of 1/2 and a y intercept of 1. Therefore, the two equations are:


You can now set them equal to each other:

Add 4 to both sides:

Multiply both sides by 2:

Multiply both sides by 5:

Subtract 5x from both sides:

Divide both sides by -13:


Hope this helps!