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natali 33 [55]
4 years ago
13

The scatter plot shows the systolic blood pressure of people of several different ages.

Mathematics
2 answers:
WITCHER [35]4 years ago
7 0
<h2>Answer:</h2>

<u>For question 1 the answer is 95 mm Hg per year and for question 2 the answer is approximately 147mm Hg</u>

<h2>Step-by-step explanation:</h2>

The equation give to us for the systolic blood pressure is given as y = x + 95. If we look at the graph and the equation there is an increase of 95 mmHg for each value of x which is the age so we can say that an increase of 95mm Hg is recorded. Then for the second part of the question if we again look at the graph we can see that the age is given in x axis and blood pressure in y axis. Value of x at 42 touches the y axis on 147 approximately which is the required blood pressure for given age.

LuckyWell [14K]4 years ago
4 0

i took the test too it’s A :):)

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bagirrra123 [75]

Answer:

Probability that at least one of them suffers from arachnophobia is 0.5160.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that a 2005 survey found that 7% of teenagers (ages 13 to 17) suffer from an extreme fear of spiders (arachnophobia).

Also, At a summer camp there are 10 teenagers sleeping in each tent.

Firstly, the binomial probability is given by;

P(X=r) =\binom{n}{r}p^{r}(1-p)^{n-r} for x = 0,1,2,3,....

where, n = number of trials(teenagers) taken = 10

           r = number of successes = at least one

          p = probability of success and success in our question is % of

                the teenagers suffering from arachnophobia, i.e. 7%.

Let X = Number of teenagers suffering from arachnophobia

So, X ~ Binom(n= 10,p=0.07)

So, probability that at least one of them suffers from arachnophobia

= P(X >= 1) = 1 - probability that none of them suffers from arachnophobia

= 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - \binom{10}{0}0.07^{0}(1-0.07)^{10-0}

                       = 1 - (1 * 1 * 0.93^{10} ) = 1 - 0.484 = 0.5160 .

Therefore, Probability that at least one of them suffers from arachnophobia is 0.5160 .

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NeTakaya
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Now, lets continue by dividing by -2 both sides of equality sign.

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