1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Arturiano [62]
3 years ago
7

Was reconciliation between the american colonies and great britain possible in 1774? why or why not?

History
2 answers:
liraira [26]3 years ago
5 0

Reconciliation between the American colonies and Great Britain was very unlikely in 1774.

Further Explanation:

After the French and Indian War (1754-1763), the British government was in significant debt. To pay off this debt, the British government turned to the American colonists who they protected during the aforementioned French and Indian War. The colonists disliked the taxes (on products like paper, sugar, etc.) because they had no vote on whether or not they would be implemented. Instead, the British parliament passed the taxes without the colonists input. This sparked outrage and the famous phrase "no taxation without representation." This was just the beginning of problems between Great Britain and the American colonists.

Tensions continually rose between the colonists and British, as shown by events like the Boston Massacre. One of the last straws for the British government was the Boston Tea Party (1773). In Boston, thousands of American colonists boarded British ships and destroyed almost one million dollars worth of British tea in protest of the Tea Act. The British government responded with the Coercive (Intolerable) Acts which severely punished the colonists for the Boston Tea Party. After the passing of the Intolerable Acts in 1774, reconciliation seemed almost impossible.

Learn More:

Information about the Intolerable Acts: brainly.com/question/3952410

Key Details:

Topics: American Revolution, American History

Grade level: 9-12, College

Keywords: American Revolution, Boston Tea party, Intolerable Act, "no taxation without representation"

Ede4ka [16]3 years ago
4 0
<span>It probably wasn't possible by 1774 for the 13 colonies and the British government to come together because things had gone too far between them. The 13 colonies thought the taxes imposed on them were ungrateful on the British part. The 13 colonies had fought against New-France from 1754 and 1760 and won the war for Britain. They thought it was ungrateful on the British part to impose taxes on them because of that.</span>
You might be interested in
Why were the Europeans able to dominate in Africa and Asia?
Juliette [100K]

Its option B

Explanation:

Because European countries were more developed than Asia and Africa

3 0
3 years ago
What did the europeans find when they came to the americas? <br> I will give you branilest!
Brilliant_brown [7]

Answer:

When they found the Americas they were interested because they found new land. The Europeans wanted to find the seven cities of gold and the fountain of youth. They also wanted to find new trading routes. One of the major reasons was to find spices that they crave for drying their meats.

Explanation:

<u><em>PIZZABOY</em></u>

4 0
3 years ago
What's your opinion on protesters?
Masteriza [31]
I think it’s good. Protesting and fighting for something good
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Who gives men their unalienable rights?
Maksim231197 [3]
Well, according to the US Constitution, it is the Creator, or God who gives men their unalienable rights. All men are born equal, and by being born, are given their unalienable rights which cannot be taken away from them. 
3 0
3 years ago
What two things did former British prime minister Winston Churchill affirm in his Iron Curtain speech?
lora16 [44]

<em>Answer:</em>

<em>The two things He did was he affirmed the building of iron curtain by soviet and that the Europe would be against it.</em>

<em>Explanation:</em>

In his Iron Curtain speech, Winston Churchill affirmed his wish to side with the United States against the Soviet Union  and his belief that only the United States possessed nuclear weapons.

Winston Churchill used the Iron Curtain expression to refer to the border, not only physical but also ideological, that divided Europe into two blocks after World War II. Churchill popularized the term at a conference in the United States in 1946, when he said:

"From Stettin, in the Baltic, to Trieste, in the Adriatic, an Iron Curtain has fallen on the continent"

<em>The frontier of which Churchill spoke divided the socialist states, headed politically, economically and militarily by the Soviet Union, and the capitalist states, aligned with the United States.</em>

5 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • How did president nixon show he was ready to deal with china?
    14·2 answers
  • Why were the new trade routes needed in the 15th century?
    11·1 answer
  • Evaluate the accomplishments of African American leaders during the progressive era
    10·1 answer
  • What best defines Saracens?
    11·2 answers
  • Describe three ways in which America cities were changed by the early industrial revolution.
    5·1 answer
  • Study the image above. Which of the following would you place in the section labeled “B”
    15·1 answer
  • Alexander and his friends are able to do this without the
    6·2 answers
  • How did the Enlightenment’s theories of government view the role of government?
    11·1 answer
  • Please help me!
    6·1 answer
  • When an area of land will support the growth of healthy crops, we call it: *
    7·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!