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topjm [15]
3 years ago
15

If f(x) varies directly with x and f(x) = 40 when x = 8, find the value of f(x) when x = 2.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Mars2501 [29]3 years ago
7 0

For this case we have a direct variation of the form:

f (x) = kx

Where "k" is the constant of proportionality. To find it, we use the following data:

f (x) = 40\ and\ x = 8

Substituting:

40 = k * 8

Clearing the value of k:

k = \frac {40} {8}\\k = 5

Thus, the direct variation is given by:

f (x) = 5x

Forx = 2 we have:

f (2) = 5 * 2\\f (2) = 10

Answer:

The value of the direct variation for x = 2is: f (2) = 10


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X denotes the highest ranking achieved by the woman.

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When X=6, the first five people are males and the sixth person is a female. The rest of the four people are also females since there are only five men in a sample space.

The probability for X=7, 8, 9, 10 is zero because there are only five men who can achieve the first five positions and the last highest rank that can be achieved by a woman is 6.

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For X=2, the first rank must be taken by a male. The number of ways to arrange the first person as a male out of the 5 men can be calculated by 5P1. The second position must be taken by a female and rest of the 8 positions can be taken by any of the 8 people in 8P8 ways.

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For X=3, first two people must be men and the number of ways to arrange 2 out of 5 males at the first two positions is 5P2. The third position is a female. The rest of the 7 people can be ordered in 7P7 ways.

P(X=3) = (5P2)(5C1)(7P7)/(10P10) = (20 x 5 x 5040)/(3628800) = 5/36

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