Answer and Explanation:
The computation of the given question is shown below:-
Total Contributions = Monthly contribution + Amount invested in Ferdinand’s 401(k)
= $250 + $125
= $375
1. Future Value = PMT [((1 + r)n - 1) ÷ r
Future value = 375 × ((1 + 0.03 ÷ 12) × 12 × 40 - 1) ÷ (0.03 ÷ 12)
= $347,272
2. Ferdinand deposit = Given Amount × Total number of months in a year × Number of years
= $250 × 12 Months × 40 Years
= $120,000
3. The Amount put in by the employer = 50% of $250 ×Total number of months in a year × Number of years
=
$125 × 12 Months × 40 Years
= $60,000
4. Interest = Future value - Ferdinand deposit - The Amount put in by the employer
= $347,272 - $120,000 - $60,000
= $167,272
We simply applied the above formulas
Answer:
to get stronger and have more power
Answer:
The correct answer is $2.43.
Explanation:
The annual dividend is $1.90.
The expected rate of return is 12%.
The growth rate is 3.5%.
The current stock price will be
=
=
=
=$22.35
The stock price at year 3 will be
=
=
=
=$24.78
The capital gain will be
=stock price at year 3-current stock price
=$24.78-$22.35
=$2.43
Answer:
e). None of the above, because a perfect hedge does not exist
A perfect hedge is nearly impossible
Explanation:
A perfect hedge is a position undertaken by an investor that would eliminate the risk of an existing position, or a position that eliminates all market risk from a portfolio. In order to be a perfect hedge, a position would need to have a 100% inverse correlation to the initial position.
At the time of taking an opposite position in Derivatives Market, Perfect Hedge would mean covering the risk involved in the Cash Market Position completely, i.e. 100%. 2. Imperfect Hedge: When the position in the cash market is not completely hedged or not hedged to 100%, then such a hedge is called Imperfect Hedge.
