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Veseljchak [2.6K]
3 years ago
9

One major difference between oligopoly and perfect competition is that A. oligopolistic firms act interdependently while competi

tive firms operate independently. B. oligopolistic firms act independently while competitive firms operate interdependently. C. There is no major difference in the two types of firms since they both act interdependently. D. There is no major difference in the two types of firms since they both act independently.
Business
1 answer:
Zina [86]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

B. oligopolistic firms act independently while competitive firms operate interdependently.

Explanation:

A perfect competition is characterised by many buyers and sellers of homogenous goods and services produced in an economy within a given period which is usually a year. Market prices are set by the forces of demand and supply.

An oligopoly is characterised by few large firms. Firms in an oligopoly usually come together collusively to either set the prices or the quantity to be supplied in order to earn higher profits.

I hope my answer helps you

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Jeff Co. sells its giant cheese wheels for $36 per wheel. The contribution margin ratio is 75% and total fixed costs are $270,00
Damm [24]

Answer:

Level of sales in dollars in order to generate a profit of $54,000 Fixed cost + Target profit/Contribution per unit $270,000 + $54,0000/0.75

= $432,000

Number of units to be sold

= Level of sales/Selling price

= $432,000/$36

= 12,000 units

The correct answer is A

Explanation:

In this case, we need to calculate level of sales in dollars, which is fixed cost plus target profit divided by contribution margin ratio. Then, we will calculate no of units to be sold, which is the level of sales divided by selling price.

7 0
3 years ago
The deadweight loss associated with output less than the competitive level can be determined by A. subtracting the consumer surp
SSSSS [86.1K]

Answer:

C. subtracting the competitive level producer surplus from the producer surplus associated with less output

Explanation:

A deadweight loss refers to a cost to society created as a result of market inefficiency. Market inefficiency occurs when supply and demand are out of equilibrium. It is also known as excess burden.

Deadweight loss is also created due to taxes as they prevent people from purchasing things that they would otherwise as the final price of the product increases.

The deadweight loss associated with output less than the competitive level can be determined by subtracting the competitive level producer surplus from the producer surplus associated with less output

7 0
3 years ago
Jackson Fabricators Inc. machines metal parts for the automotive industry. Under the traditional manufacturing approach, the par
Soloha48 [4]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below:-

<u>Particulars </u>               Traditional Philosophy     Manufacturing

                                         <u> Lean                        Philosophy</u>

Value added                 2 + 6 = 8                                 8

Non value added        8 × (50 - 1) = 392                   8 × (6 - 1) = 40

Total lead time                   400                                  48

Value-added ratio

(as a percent)              8 ÷ 400 × 100 = 2%                 8 ÷ 48 × 100 = 16.17%

5 0
3 years ago
To qualify as a pass-through entity for U.S. corporate income tax, a REIT must be all of the following EXCEPT
Mashcka [7]

To qualify as a pass-through entity for U.S. corporate income tax, a REIT must be all of the following EXCEPT : <u>​Jointly owned by less than 100 persons.</u>

<h3>What Is a Real Estate Investment Trust (REIT)?</h3>

A real estate investment trust (REIT) is a company that owns, operates, or finances income-generating real estate.

Modeled after mutual funds, REITs pool the capital of numerous investors. This makes it possible for individual investors to earn dividends from real estate investments—without having to buy, manage, or finance any properties themselves.

To qualify as a REIT, a company must comply with certain provisions in the Internal Revenue Code (IRC). These requirements include to primarily own income-generating real estate for the long term and distribute income to shareholders.

Specifically, a company must meet the following requirements to qualify as a REIT:

  • Invest at least 75% of total assets in real estate, cash, or U.S. Treasuries
  • Derive at least 75% of gross income from rents, interest on mortgages that finance real property, or real estate sales
  • Pay a minimum of 90% of taxable income in the form of shareholder dividends each year
  • Be an entity that's taxable as a corporation
  • Be managed by a board of directors or trustees
  • Have at least 100 shareholders after its first year of existence
  • Have no more than 50% of its shares held by five or fewer individuals

Therefore, we can conclude that the correct option is D.

Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question was:

To qualify as a pass-through entity for U.S. corporate income tax, a REIT must be all of the following EXCEPT

a.​structured as a corporation, trust, or association.

b.​have transferable shares or certificates of interest.

c.​managed by a board of directors or trustees.

d.​jointly owned by less than 100 persons.

Learn more about REIT on:

brainly.com/question/20366600

#SPJ4

3 0
2 years ago
Which of the following would not be counted in the calculation of GDP? Choose one or more: A. paying for a local garage to rotat
alex41 [277]

Answer:

Correct options are: (D), (E), (F).

Explanation:

Since the dog seller does not pay taxes, he is evading tax and is therefore conducting illegal transactions. Illegal transactions are excluded from GDP.

Mowing the law does not have an imputed market value and is excluded from GDP.

Government spending on food stamps is a transfer payment since no value gets added in return, therefore is excluded.

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4 years ago
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