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Mazyrski [523]
3 years ago
15

Anton Co. uses the perpetual inventory system and FIFO cost flow method. During the year, Anton purchased 400 units of inventory

that cost $12.00 each and then purchased an additional 600 units of inventory that cost $16.00 each. If Anton sells 700 units of inventory, what is the amount of cost of goods sold?A.$11,200.B.$10,400.C.$8,400.D.$9,600.
Business
1 answer:
allsm [11]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Option (D) $9,600

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Initial units purchased = 400 @ $12.00 each

Additional units purchased = 600 @ $16.00 each

Number of units sold = 700

Now,

Using the FIFO cost flow method

Out of the 700 units sold,

units sold from Initial purchase will be 400 and the remaining units i.e (700 - 400) 300 units will be sold from the additional purchase

Thus,

Amount  of cost of goods sold

= ( 400 × $12 ) + ( 300 × $16 )

= $4,800 + $4,800

= $9,600

Hence,

Option (D) $9,600

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The following data relate to direct labor costs for the current period:
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Answer:$2,125 unfavorable

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Given

Standard costs     9,000 hours at $5.50

Actual costs        8,500 hours at $5.75

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1ST ----Direct Labor rate variance = (Actual Rate- Standard Rate ) x Actual hour

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2ND----Direct Labor Rate Variance=Actual Direct Labor Cost Incurred - Standard Direct Labor Cost Based on Actual Hours

=Actual Hours x Actual Rate -Actual Hours x Standard Rate

= ($5.75 x 8,500 hours)-($5.50 x 8,500 hours)

$48,875 - $46,750 = $2,125 unfavorable

when the  actual rate is higher than the standard rate, the Direct Labor Rate Variance is unfavorable and if the actual rate is lower than standard rate, the variance is favorable.

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Bill heard, as part of the _____ curriculum in his school, that certain races were not as good as others, and that coolness was
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Golden Eye Co., a hi-tech satellite company, has asked you to value the company for possible cross-listing in the U.S. The compa
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Answer:

Explanation:

Let's first determine the free cash flow of the firm

Particulars                            Years

                          1                         2                   3

EBIT                  540                   680                750

<u>Tax at 36%    (0.36*540)       (0.36*680)        (0.36*750)    </u>

Less:               345.6                  435.2            480

Net Capital -

Spending            150                   170                 190

<u>Change in NWC    70                    75                  80      </u>

Less:                    125.6              190.2                210

The terminal value at the end of T =(3  years) is:

= \dfrac{Free \ cash \ flow}{unlevered \ cost - expected \ growth  \ rate}

= \dfrac{250}{0.1643-0.04}

= \dfrac{250}{0.1243}

= 2011.26

Finally, the value of the firm can be computed as follows:

Years                  Free Cash Flow        PVIF           PV

1                          125.6                        0.6589        107.88

2                         190.2                        0.7377         140.31

3                          210                           0.6336       133.06

<u>Terminal Value  2011.26                    0.6336        1294.33     </u>

<u>Value of the firm   ⇒                                               $1655.58</u>

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